JAMB Physics 1986 past questions and answers

48 questions. Try each one, then open the answer to check yourself and read the explanation.

Question 1

Measurement and Units

Which of the following represents the correct precision if the length of a piece of wire is measured with a metre rule?

  1. A.35 mm
  2. B.35.0 mm
  3. C.35.00 mm
  4. D.35.01 mm
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (35 mm)

Explanation

A metre rule's smallest division is 1 mm, so it can only measure to the nearest millimetre: 35 mm. Writing 35.0 mm or 35.00 mm would claim a precision the rule does not have.

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Question 2

Elasticity

Figure 1 is a graph of force against extension for a spiral spring. The force constant of the spring is given by the

Diagram for this question
  1. A.slope of the linear portion of the graph
  2. B.length of the linear portion of the graph
  3. C.area under the linear portion of the graph
  4. D.area under the entire graph.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (slope of the linear portion of the graph)

Explanation

Hooke's law F = ke holds on the straight part of the graph, so k = F/e is its slope.

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Question 3

Density and Upthrust

A heavy object is suspended from a string and lowered into water so that it is completely submerged. The object appears lighter because

  1. A.the density of water is less than that of the object
  2. B.the pressure is low just below the water surface
  3. C.it experiences an upthrust
  4. D.the tension in the string neutralizes part of the weight.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (it experiences an upthrust)

Explanation

The water pushes up on the object with an upthrust equal to the weight of water displaced, so less tension is needed to hold it.

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Question 4

Measurement and Units

Which of the following is a derived unit?

  1. A.Kilogramme
  2. B.Metre
  3. C.Kelvin
  4. D.Newton
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Newton)

Explanation

The newton is made from base units: 1 N = 1 kg m s−2. The others are base units.

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Question 5

Newton's Laws and Momentum

Two objects, one having three times the mass of the other, are dropped at the same time from a tall building. When they are above the ground, the two objects will have the same

  1. A.momentum
  2. B.kinetic energy
  3. C.potential energy
  4. D.acceleration
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (acceleration)

Explanation

All bodies falling freely have the same acceleration g, whatever their mass. Momentum and energies depend on mass.

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Question 6

Equilibrium of Forces

Which of the following is in a neutral equilibrium?

  1. A.A heavy weight suspended on a string
  2. B.A cone resting on its slant edge
  3. C.A heavy-based table lamp
  4. D.The beam of a balance in use.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (A cone resting on its slant edge)

Explanation

A cone lying on its side can roll to any new position and stays there; its centre of gravity neither rises nor falls, so it is in neutral equilibrium.

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Question 7

Motion

A ball is thrown vertically into the air with an initial velocity u. What is the greatest height reached?

  1. A.u2g
  2. B.3u2/2g
  3. C.u2g
  4. D.u2/2g.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (u2/2g.)

Explanation

At the top v = 0, so 0 = u² − 2gh, giving h = u²/2g.

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Question 8

Simple Harmonic Motion

Which of the following assumptions is made in a simple pendulum experiment? The

  1. A.suspending string is inextensible
  2. B.bob has a finite size
  3. C.bob has a definite mass
  4. D.initial angle of oscillation must be large.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (suspending string is inextensible)

Explanation

The simple pendulum theory assumes a light, inextensible string, a point-like bob and small swings.

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Question 9

Equilibrium of Forces

A uniform metre rule QR is balanced on a knife edge which is 55 cm from R. When a mass of 10 g is hung at P as shown in Fig. 2, the mass of the metre rule is

Diagram for this question
  1. A.550 g
  2. B.350 g
  3. C.70 g
  4. D.35 g
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (70 g)

Explanation

From R, P is at 90 cm, the pivot at 55 cm and the rule's centre of gravity at 50 cm. Moments: 10 × 35 = m × 5, so m = 70 g.

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Question 10

Equilibrium of Forces

In Fig. 3, the three forces F1, F2, F3 acting at O are in equilibrium. If the magnitude of F1 is 10.0 N and the magnitude of F2 is 5.0 N, find the magnitude of F3.

Diagram for this question
  1. A.26.4 N
  2. B.15.0 N
  3. C.13.2 N
  4. D.10.0 N
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (13.2 N)

Explanation

F3 balances the resultant of F1 and F2, which are 60° apart: R² = 10² + 5² + 2 × 10 × 5 × cos 60° = 175, so R ≈ 13.2 N.

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Question 11

Friction

When a box of mass 45 kg is given an initial speed of 5 m s−1, it slides along a horizontal floor a distance of 3 m before coming to rest. What is the coefficient of the kinetic friction between the box and the floor? (g = 10 m s−2)

  1. A.5/6
  2. B.5/12
  3. C.1/3
  4. D.2/3.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (5/12)

Explanation

Deceleration a = u²/2s = 25/6 m s−2. Friction μmg = ma, so μ = a/g = (25/6)/10 = 5/12.

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Question 12

Simple Machines

Figure 4 represents a block-and-tackle pulley system on which an effort of W Newtons supports a load of 120.0 N. If the efficiency of the machine is 40%, then the value of W is

Diagram for this question
  1. A.28.0 N
  2. B.48.0 N
  3. C.50.0 N
  4. D.288.0 N
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (50.0 N)

Explanation

The system has six supporting strands, so VR = 6. MA = 0.4 × 6 = 2.4, and W = 120 ÷ 2.4 = 50 N.

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Question 13

Work, Energy and Power

A constant force of magnitude F acts on an object of mass 0.04 kg initially at rest at a point O. If the speed of the object when it has moved 50 m from O is 500 m s−1, what is the value of F?

  1. A.0.4 N
  2. B.100.0 N
  3. C.250.0 N
  4. D.1000.0 N
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (100.0 N)

Explanation

a = v²/2s = 500²/100 = 2500 m s−2. F = ma = 0.04 × 2500 = 100 N.

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Question 14

Pressure

A rectangular tank contains water to a depth of 2 m. If the base is 4 m × 3 m, calculate the force on the base (Density of water = 103 kg m−3, g = 10 m s−2)

  1. A.2.4 × 105 N
  2. B.2.4 × 104 N
  3. C.2.0 × 104 N
  4. D.1.7 × 103 N
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (2.4 × 105 N)

Explanation

Pressure = hρg = 2 × 1000 × 10 = 2 × 104 Pa. Force = pressure × area = 2 × 104 × 12 = 2.4 × 105 N.

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Question 15

Newton's Laws and Momentum

A 1000 kg elevator is descending vertically with an acceleration of 1.0 m s−2. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10.0 m s−2, the tension in the suspending cable is

  1. A.1.0 N
  2. B.10.0 N
  3. C.9000.0 N
  4. D.11 000.0 N
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Answer: C (9000.0 N)

Explanation

Accelerating downwards, mg − T = ma, so T = m(g − a) = 1000 × 9 = 9000 N.

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Question 16

Motion

A ball attached to one end of a string moves anti-clockwise around a circle whose centre is O. If the string suddenly breaks when the ball is at the point P along which of the following paths will it move?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.A
  2. B.B
  3. C.C
  4. D.D
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (B)

Explanation

When the string breaks there is no centripetal force, so the ball flies off along the tangent in the direction it was moving; going anticlockwise at P, that is straight up the page, as in B.

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Question 17

Heat Transfer

The mode of heat transfer which does not require a material medium is

  1. A.conduction
  2. B.radiation
  3. C.convection
  4. D.propagation
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (radiation)

Explanation

Radiation travels as electromagnetic waves and can cross a vacuum.

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Question 18

Thermal Expansion

The expansion of solids can be considered a disadvantage in the

  1. A.balance wheel of a watch
  2. B.fitting of wheels on rims
  3. C.fire alarm
  4. D.thermostat.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (balance wheel of a watch)

Explanation

When a watch's balance wheel expands in heat its timing changes, which is a nuisance. Fitting tyres on wheels, fire alarms and thermostats all make use of expansion.

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Question 19

Change of State and Vapours

In an experiment in which molten naphthalene is allowed to cool, the cooling curve in Fig. 5 was obtained. The temperature 80°C is known as the

Diagram for this question
  1. A.cooling temperature
  2. B.boiling point
  3. C.melting point
  4. D.vaporization point
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (melting point)

Explanation

The flat part of the cooling curve at 80°C is where the liquid solidifies at constant temperature; this is the melting (freezing) point.

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Question 20

Change of State and Vapours

The specific latent heat of fusion of lead is the amount of heat required to

  1. A.melt lead at its melting point
  2. B.heat a unit mass of lead through 1°C
  3. C.change the state of a unit mass of lead at its melting point
  4. D.change the state of a unit mass of lead at its boiling point.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (change the state of a unit mass of lead at its melting point)

Explanation

Specific latent heat of fusion is the heat needed to change unit mass from solid to liquid at the melting point, with no temperature change.

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Question 21

Change of State and Vapours

Which of the following is common to evaporation and boiling? They

  1. A.take place at any temperature
  2. B.are surface phenomena
  3. C.involve change of state
  4. D.take place at a definite pressure.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (involve change of state)

Explanation

Both turn liquid into vapour, so both are changes of state. Evaporation happens at any temperature at the surface; boiling happens throughout at one temperature.

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Question 22

Pressure

Mercury is suitable as a barometric fluid because it

  1. A.expands uniformly
  2. B.is opaque
  3. C.is several times denser than water
  4. D.is a good conductor of heat.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (is several times denser than water)

Explanation

Mercury's high density means atmospheric pressure supports only about 76 cm of it, a convenient length; water would need over 10 m.

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Question 23

Heat Transfer

Which of the following properties makes metals ideal for cooking utensils?

  1. A.High coefficient of expansion
  2. B.Good conduction of heat
  3. C.Low specific heat capacity
  4. D.Poor radiation of heat.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Good conduction of heat)

Explanation

Metals conduct heat well, carrying heat quickly from the flame to the food.

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Question 24

Gas Laws

A gas occupies a volume of 300 cm3 at a temperature of 27°C. What is its volume at 54°C, when the pressure is constant?

  1. A.150 cm3
  2. B.273 cm3
  3. C.327 cm3
  4. D.600 cm3.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (327 cm3)

Explanation

Charles' law with kelvin temperatures: V2 = 300 × 327/300 = 327 cm3.

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Question 25

Quantity of Heat

When two objects P and Q are supplied with the same quantity of heat, the temperature change in P is observed to be twice that of Q. The mass of P is half that of Q. The ratio of the specific heat capacity of P to Q is

  1. A.1 : 4
  2. B.4 : 1
  3. C.1 : 1
  4. D.2 : 1
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (1 : 1)

Explanation

Q = mcθ is the same for both: cP × (½m) × 2θ = cQ × m × θ, so cP = cQ and the ratio is 1 : 1.

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Question 27

Refraction of Light

In Fig. 6, a ray of light in air strikes a glass plate at an angle of incidence of 60°. The reflected ray is observed to be perpendicular to the refracted ray. What is the refractive index of the glass?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.1.73
  2. B.1.50
  3. C.0.87
  4. D.0.57
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (1.73)

Explanation

Reflected ray is at 60° to the normal; for it to be at 90° to the refracted ray, the angle of refraction is 180° − 60° − 90° = 30°. n = sin 60°/sin 30° ≈ 1.73.

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Question 28

Lenses and Optical Instruments

A lens of focal length 12.0 cm forms an upright image three times the size of a real object. The distance between the object and the image is

  1. A.8.0 cm
  2. B.16.0 cm
  3. C.24.0 cm
  4. D.32.0 cm
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (16.0 cm)

Explanation

An upright, magnified image from a converging lens is virtual and on the same side as the object, with v = −3u. 1/u − 1/(3u) = 1/12 gives u = 8 cm and the image 24 cm from the lens, so they are 24 − 8 = 16 cm apart.

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Question 29

Electromagnetic Spectrum

In which of the following arrangements is the wavelength in an increasing order?

  1. A.Gamma rays, infra-red rays, x-rays, radiowaves
  2. B.Gamma rays, x-rays, infra-red ray, radiowaves
  3. C.Radiowaves, x-rays gamma rays, infra-red rays
  4. D.Infra-red rays, radiowaves, x-rays, gamma rays.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Gamma rays, x-rays, infra-red ray, radiowaves)

Explanation

From shortest to longest wavelength: gamma rays, X-rays, (ultraviolet, visible,) infra-red, radio waves.

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Question 30

Refraction of Light

If the refractive index of glass is 1.5, what is the critical angle at the air-glass interface?

  1. A.sin−1 ½
  2. B.sin−1 ⅔
  3. C.sin−1 ¾
  4. D.sin−1 8/9.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (sin−1 ⅔)

Explanation

sin C = 1/n = 1/1.5 = 2/3, so C = sin−1(2/3).

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Question 31

Light and Reflection

A dentist obtains a linear magnification of 4 of a hole in a tooth by placing a concave mirror at a distance of 2.0 cm from the tooth. The radius of curvature of the mirror is

  1. A.5.3 cm
  2. B.3.2 cm
  3. C.2.7 cm
  4. D.1.6 cm
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (5.3 cm)

Explanation

The dentist sees an upright, virtual image, so v = −8 cm when u = 2 cm. 1/f = 1/2 − 1/8 = 3/8, f ≈ 2.67 cm and r = 2f ≈ 5.3 cm.

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Question 32

Light and Reflection

What is the effect of the increase in the size of the hole of a pin-hole camera on the image? It

  1. A.gives a blurred image
  2. B.corrects for chromatic aberration
  3. C.magnifies the image
  4. D.brings the image into a sharper focus.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (gives a blurred image)

Explanation

A bigger hole lets light from each point of the object form a patch rather than a point, so the overlapping patches blur the image (though it is brighter).

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Question 33

Light and Reflection

A pencil is placed vertically between a concave mirror and its focal point. The image of the pencil in the mirror will be

  1. A.real, inverted and diminished
  2. B.virtual, inverted and enlarged
  3. C.real, erect and enlarged
  4. D.virtual, erect and enlarged.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (virtual, erect and enlarged.)

Explanation

An object inside the focal length of a concave mirror gives a virtual, upright, magnified image (as in a shaving mirror).

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Question 34

Waves

A wave of frequency 10 Hz forms a stationary wave pattern in a medium where the velocity is 20 cm s−1. The distance between adjacent nodes is

  1. A.1.0 cm
  2. B.1.5 cm
  3. C.2.0 cm
  4. D.5.0 cm
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (1.0 cm)

Explanation

λ = v/f = 20/10 = 2 cm. Adjacent nodes are λ/2 = 1 cm apart.

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Question 35

Sound

In Fig. 7, a resonance tube experiment is performed using one tuning fork. As the water level is lowered the first resonance is obtained when the length of the air column l = λ/4. The second resonance is obtained when l equals

Diagram for this question
  1. A.λ/2
  2. B.3λ/4
  3. C.λ
  4. D.3λ/2.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (3λ/4)

Explanation

A tube closed at one end resonates at λ/4, 3λ/4, 5λ/4…, so the second resonance is at 3λ/4.

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Question 36

Sound

Which of the following is true of the loudness of sound? It

  1. A.depends on the square of the amplitude of the vibrating body
  2. B.is proportional to the distance of the observer from the source of the sound
  3. C.is greatest in vacuum
  4. D.is independent of frequency.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (depends on the square of the amplitude of the vibrating body)

Explanation

Loudness depends on intensity, and intensity is proportional to the square of the amplitude.

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Question 37

Sound

A man clapping his hands at regular intervals observes that the echo of a clap coincides with the next clap. If the reflecting cliff is 160 m away and the speed of sound is 320 m s−1, what is the frequency of the clapping?

  1. A.1 Hz
  2. B.2 Hz
  3. C.4 Hz
  4. D.8 Hz
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (1 Hz)

Explanation

The echo travels 320 m there and back in 320/320 = 1 s, so the claps are 1 s apart: 1 Hz.

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Question 38

Sound

The vibration of an air column produces the sound in the

  1. A.piano
  2. B.guitar
  3. C.flute
  4. D.school handbell.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (flute)

Explanation

A flute is a wind instrument: its note comes from the vibrating air column inside it. Pianos and guitars use strings, and a bell vibrates itself.

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Question 39

Current Electricity

If Fig. 8, E is an accumulator with negligible internal resistance. If the emf is 9.0 V, then the total current is

Diagram for this question
  1. A.0.3 A
  2. B.0.8 A
  3. C.1.0 A
  4. D.1.8 A
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (1.0 A)

Explanation

The 5 Ω and 20 Ω in parallel give 4 Ω; with the other 5 Ω in series the total is 9 Ω. I = 9/9 = 1.0 A.

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Question 40

Current Electricity

In Fig. 9, the value of R is

Diagram for this question
  1. A.3 Ω
  2. B.4 Ω
  3. C.5 Ω
  4. D.6 Ω
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (6 Ω)

Explanation

Total resistance = 12/2 = 6 Ω. So R in parallel with 6 Ω must be 3 Ω, which needs R = 6 Ω.

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Question 41

Electromagnetic Induction

Which of the following is NOT a part of a d.c. electric motor?

  1. A.Field-magnet
  2. B.Armature
  3. C.Commutator
  4. D.Transformer.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Transformer.)

Explanation

A d.c. motor has a field magnet, an armature coil and a commutator. A transformer is a separate device that works only with a.c.

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Question 42

Current Electricity

Which of the following is stored by a dry Leclanche cell?

  1. A.Electrical power
  2. B.Kinetic energy
  3. C.Electric current
  4. D.Chemical energy.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Chemical energy.)

Explanation

A cell stores chemical energy and turns it into electrical energy when current is drawn.

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Question 43

Current Electricity

Which of the following arrangements will produce an equivalent resistance of 1.5 Ω from three 1 Ω resistors?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.A
  2. B.B
  3. C.C
  4. D.D
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (D)

Explanation

Two 1 Ω resistors in parallel give 0.5 Ω; adding the third in series gives 1.5 Ω, which is arrangement D.

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Question 44

Magnetism

Which of the following is true of magnetism?

  1. A.Iron filings cling mainly round the ends of a bar magnet
  2. B.The freely suspended bar magnet comes to rest in the geographic north-south direction.
  3. C.Like poles attract
  4. D.Lodestone is a non-magnetic oxide.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Iron filings cling mainly round the ends of a bar magnet)

Explanation

The magnetic force is strongest at the poles, near the ends of a bar magnet, so iron filings gather there. A suspended magnet points along the magnetic (not geographic) meridian.

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Question 45

Magnetism

The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian at a locality on the earth is the

  1. A.longitude of the locality
  2. B.angle of inclination at the locality
  3. C.latitude of the locality
  4. D.angle of declination of the locality.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (angle of declination of the locality.)

Explanation

The angle between magnetic north and true north at a place is the declination.

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Question 46

Electrostatics

The sign of the charge on a charged glass rod may be determined with

  1. A.a charged electroscope
  2. B.an uncharged electroscope
  3. C.a galvanometer
  4. D.an electrometer.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (a charged electroscope)

Explanation

Bring the rod near an electroscope of known charge: if the leaves open further the charges are alike; an uncharged electroscope only shows that there is a charge.

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Question 48

Magnetism

If the inclination at Ibadan is 7°S, this means that

  1. A.the angle between the geographic meridian and the magnetic meridian at Ibadan is 7°.
  2. B.the earth's resultant magnetic intensity at Ibadan makes angle 7° with the horizontal direction
  3. C.a magnetic needle will be inclined at 7° to the vertical at Ibadan
  4. D.the north pole of a magnetic needle dips downwards at Ibadan.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (the earth's resultant magnetic intensity at Ibadan makes angle 7° with the horizontal direction)

Explanation

Inclination (dip) is the angle the earth's total field makes with the horizontal; 7°S means the south-seeking end dips.

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Question 49

Electromagnetic Spectrum

The wavelength of ultraviolet radiation is 400 nm. If the speed of light in air is 3 × 108 m s−1, then the frequency of the ultraviolet radiation is

  1. A.1.3 × 1015 Hz
  2. B.7.5 × 105 Hz
  3. C.1.2 × 1011 Hz
  4. D.7.5 × 1014 Hz
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (7.5 × 1014 Hz)

Explanation

f = c/λ = 3 × 108 ÷ (400 × 10−9) = 7.5 × 1014 Hz.

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Question 50

Radioactivity and Nuclear Physics

Which of the following is most strongly deflected by a magnetic field?

  1. A.γ-rays
  2. B.α-particles
  3. C.β-particles
  4. D.x-rays.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (β-particles)

Explanation

γ-rays and X-rays carry no charge. β-particles are light and charged, so they are bent far more than the heavy α-particles.

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