JAMB Physics 1985 past questions and answers

49 questions. Try each one, then open the answer to check yourself and read the explanation.

Question 1

Measurement and Units

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental S.I. unit?

  1. A.Metre
  2. B.Ampere
  3. C.Kelvin
  4. D.Second
  5. E.Radian
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (Radian)

Explanation

The metre, ampere, kelvin and second are SI base units. The radian is a unit of angle, a ratio of two lengths.

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Question 2

Simple Harmonic Motion

A simple pendulum with a period of 2.0 s has its length doubled. Its new period is

  1. A.1.00 s
  2. B.1.41 s
  3. C.0.35 s
  4. D.2.83 s
  5. E.4.00 s.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (2.83 s)

Explanation

T is proportional to √L, so doubling L multiplies T by √2: 2.0 × 1.414 ≈ 2.83 s.

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Question 3

Measurement and Units

Which of the following statements are true about the spring balance and the chemical balance? I. Both are used to measure the mass of an object II. Either of them may be used to measure the weight of an object. III. The spring balance works on the principle of Hooke's law while the chemical balance works on the principle of moments. IV. A change in gravity changes the readings of a spring balance but not that of a chemical balance

  1. A.I and IV
  2. B.II and III
  3. C.III and IV
  4. D.I, II and III
  5. E.I and III.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (III and IV)

Explanation

A spring balance measures weight using Hooke's law, so its reading changes with g. A chemical balance compares masses using moments, so its reading does not change with g.

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Question 4

Motion

Which of the following types of motion are oscillatory? I. A diving board when used by a diver II. The motion of the balance wheel of a wrist watch III. The motion of the turn-table of a record player IV. The motion of the centre of a ten kobo piece as it rolls down an inclined plane. V. The motion of the needle of a D.C. ammeter into which a low A.C. current is passed

  1. A.I and II only
  2. B.I, II and III
  3. C.II, III and IV
  4. D.I, II and V
  5. E.III, IV and V
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (I and II only)

Explanation

A diving board and a watch balance wheel move to and fro about a fixed position. A turntable rotates and a rolling coin moves forward; neither repeats a to-and-fro motion.

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Question 5

Motion

The graph in Fig. 1 above describes the motion of a particle. The acceleration of the particle during the motion is

Diagram for this question
  1. A.0.00 m s−2
  2. B.0.25 m s−2
  3. C.4.00 m s−2
  4. D.8.00 m s−2
  5. E.10.00 m s−2.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (4.00 m s−2)

Explanation

Acceleration is the slope of the rising part of the graph: the velocity goes from 2 to 10 m s−1 in 2 s, so a = 8/2 = 4 m s−2.

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Question 6

Motion

If a car starts from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration of 10 m s−2 for ten seconds, the distance it covers in the last one second of its motion is

  1. A.95 m
  2. B.100 m
  3. C.500 m
  4. D.905 m
  5. E.1000 m
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (95 m)

Explanation

Distance in 10 s = ½ × 10 × 10² = 500 m; in 9 s = ½ × 10 × 9² = 405 m. The last second covers 500 − 405 = 95 m.

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Question 7

Newton's Laws and Momentum

A block of mass 2.0 kg resting on a smooth horizontal plane is acted upon simultaneously by two forces, 10 N due North and 10 N due East. The magnitude of the acceleration produced by the forces on the block is

  1. A.0.10 m s−2
  2. B.7.05 m s−2
  3. C.10.00 m s−2
  4. D.14.10 m s−2
  5. E.20.00 m s−2
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (7.05 m s−2)

Explanation

Resultant = √(10² + 10²) ≈ 14.1 N. a = F/m = 14.1/2 ≈ 7.05 m s−2.

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Question 8

Friction

A metal block of mass 5 kg lies on a rough horizontal platform. If a horizontal force of 8 N applied to the block through its centre of mass just slides the block on the platform, then the coefficient of limiting friction between the block and the platform is

  1. A.0.16
  2. B.0.63
  3. C.0.80
  4. D.1.60
  5. E.2.00
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (0.16)

Explanation

Limiting friction = μmg, so 8 = μ × 5 × 10 and μ = 0.16.

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Question 9

Newton's Laws and Momentum

Which of the following is NOT a force?

  1. A.Friction
  2. B.Tension
  3. C.Upthrust
  4. D.Weight
  5. E.Impulse
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (Impulse)

Explanation

Impulse is force × time (a change in momentum), not a force.

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Question 10

Equilibrium of Forces

Two masses 40 g and 60 g respectively, are attached firmly to the ends of a light metre rule. The centre of gravity of the system is

  1. A.at the mid-point of the metre rule
  2. B.40 cm from the lighter mass
  3. C.40 cm from the heavier mass
  4. D.60 cm from the heavier mass
  5. E.indeterminate because the metre-rule is light.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (40 cm from the heavier mass)

Explanation

Taking moments from the lighter mass: x = (60 × 100)/100 = 60 cm from the 40 g mass, which is 40 cm from the heavier mass.

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Question 12

Work, Energy and Power

A 0.05 kg bullet travelling at 500 m s−1 horizontally strikes a thick vertical wall. It stops after penetrating through the wall a horizontal distance of 0.25 m. What is the magnitude of the average force the wall exerts on the bullet?

  1. A.25 N
  2. B.50 N
  3. C.250 N
  4. D.5000 N
  5. E.25 000 N
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (25 000 N)

Explanation

The wall's force does work equal to the bullet's kinetic energy: F × 0.25 = ½ × 0.05 × 500² = 6250 J, so F = 25 000 N.

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Question 13

Elasticity

A force of 100 N stretches an elastic string to a total length of 20 cm. If an additional force of 100 N stretches the string 5 cm further, find the natural length of the string.

  1. A.15 cm
  2. B.12 cm
  3. C.10 cm
  4. D.8 cm
  5. E.5 cm
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (15 cm)

Explanation

The extra 100 N gives an extra 5 cm, so the first 100 N also stretched it 5 cm. Natural length = 20 − 5 = 15 cm.

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Question 14

Pressure

Two divers G and H are at depths 20 m and 40 m respectively below the water surface in a lake. The pressure on G is P1 while the pressure on H is P2. If the atmospheric pressure is equivalent to 10 m of water, then the value of P2/P1 is

  1. A.0.50
  2. B.0.60
  3. C.1.67
  4. D.2.00
  5. E.3.00
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (1.67)

Explanation

Total pressure includes the atmosphere: P1 = 20 + 10 = 30 m of water and P2 = 40 + 10 = 50 m. P2/P1 = 50/30 ≈ 1.67.

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Question 15

Pressure

The areas of the effort and load pistons of a hydraulic press are 0.5 m2 and 5 m2 respectively. If a force F1 of 100 N is applied on the effort piston, the force F2 on the load is

  1. A.10 N
  2. B.100 N
  3. C.500 N
  4. D.1000 N
  5. E.5000 N
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (1000 N)

Explanation

The pressure is the same on both pistons: 100/0.5 = F2/5, so F2 = 1000 N.

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Question 16

Measurement and Units

A metal cube of volume 103 mm3 is lowered into a measuring cylinder containing water. If the internal cross-sectional area of the cylinder is 1.5 × 102 mm2, by how much does the water level rise in the cylinder?

  1. A.6.67 × 100 mm
  2. B.5.50 × 102 mm
  3. C.1.15 × 103 mm
  4. D.2.50 × 103 mm
  5. E.1.50 × 105 mm
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (6.67 × 100 mm)

Explanation

Rise = volume ÷ area = 1000 ÷ 150 ≈ 6.67 mm.

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Question 17

Density and Upthrust

A uniform cylindrical block of wood floats in water with one-third of its height above the water level. In a liquid of relative density 0.8, what fraction of its height will be above the liquid level?

  1. A.1/6
  2. B.1/5
  3. C.1/3
  4. D.4/5
  5. E.5/6.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (1/6)

Explanation

In water ⅔ is submerged, so the wood's relative density is ⅔. In the liquid the submerged fraction is (⅔)/0.8 = 5/6, leaving 1/6 above the surface.

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Question 18

Thermal Expansion

A thin aluminium plate has a surface area of 1.500 m2 at 20°C. What will be its surface area when it is cooled to −20°C? (Take the linear expansivity of aluminium to be 2.5 × 10−5 K−1).

  1. A.1.503 m2
  2. B.1.500 m2
  3. C.1.498 m2
  4. D.1.497 m2
  5. E.1.490 m2.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (1.497 m2)

Explanation

Area expansivity = 2 × 2.5 × 10−5 = 5 × 10−5 K−1. Change = 1.5 × 5 × 10−5 × (−40) = −0.003 m2, giving 1.497 m2.

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Question 19

Quantity of Heat

Two liquids, P at a temperature of 20°C and Q at a temperature of 80°C have specific heat capacities of 1.0 J kg−1 °C−1 and 1.5 J kg−1 °C−1 respectively. If equal masses of P and Q are mixed in a lagged calorimeter, then the equilibrium temperature is

  1. A.44°C
  2. B.50°C
  3. C.56°C
  4. D.60°C
  5. E.70°C.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (56°C)

Explanation

Heat lost by Q = heat gained by P: 1.5(80 − θ) = 1.0(θ − 20), so 120 − 1.5θ = θ − 20 and θ = 56°C.

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Question 20

Gas Laws

A quantity of gas occupies a certain volume when the temperature is −73°C and the pressure is 1.5 atmospheres. If the pressure is increased to 4.5 atmospheres and the volume is halved at the same time, what will be the new temperature of the gas?

  1. A.573°C
  2. B.327°C
  3. C.300°C
  4. D.110°C
  5. E.27°C
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (27°C)

Explanation

T2 = T1 × (p2V2)/(p1V1) = 200 K × (4.5 × ½)/1.5 = 300 K = 27°C.

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Question 21

Gas Laws

In a gas experiment, the pressure of the gas is plotted against the reciprocal of the volume of the gas at a constant temperature. The unit of the slope of the resulting curve is

  1. A.force
  2. B.force/m
  3. C.work
  4. D.force/m3
  5. E.energy/m2.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (work)

Explanation

The slope is p ÷ (1/V) = pV, whose unit is N m−2 × m3 = N m, the unit of work (joule).

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Question 22

Thermal Expansion

Water shows anomalous behaviour

  1. A.below 0°C
  2. B.between 0°C and 4°C
  3. C.at exactly 4°C
  4. D.between 4°C and 100°C
  5. E.above 100°C
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (between 0°C and 4°C)

Explanation

Between 0°C and 4°C water contracts when heated instead of expanding.

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Question 23

Heat Transfer

Two thermos flasks of volume Vx and Vy are filled with liquid water at an initial temperature of 0°C. After some time the temperature were found to be θx, θy respectively. Given that Vx/Vy = 2 and θx/θy = ½, the ratio of the heat flow into the flasks is

  1. A.¼
  2. B.½
  3. C.4
  4. D.1
  5. E.2
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (1)

Explanation

Heat = mass × c × temperature rise, and mass is proportional to volume. The ratio is 2 × ½ = 1.

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Question 24

Quantity of Heat

A good calorimeter should be of

  1. A.low specific heat capacity and low heat conductivity
  2. B.low specific heat capacity and high heat conductivity
  3. C.high specific heat capacity and low heat conductivity
  4. D.high specific heat capacity and low heat conductivity
  5. E.dull surface and low heat conductivity.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (low specific heat capacity and high heat conductivity)

Explanation

A low specific heat capacity means the calorimeter takes little of the heat, and high conductivity lets its contents reach one steady temperature quickly.

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Question 25

Change of State and Vapours

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. A.Boiling occurs when the saturated vapour pressure of the liquid involved equals the external pressure
  2. B.Both the boiling point and the saturated vapour pressure of a given liquid depend on the external pressure
  3. C.The saturated vapour pressure rises with increase in temperature
  4. D.The saturated vapour pressure is independent of the volume available for the vapour.
  5. E.It is possible to boil water at a lower temperature than 100°C at high altitude.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Both the boiling point and the saturated vapour pressure of a given liquid depend on the external pressure)

Explanation

The boiling point depends on external pressure, but the saturated vapour pressure depends only on temperature.

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Question 26

Structure of Matter and Kinetic Theory

Which of the following phenomena CANNOT be explained by the molecular theory of matter?

  1. A.Expansion
  2. B.Conduction
  3. C.Convection
  4. D.Radiation
  5. E.Evaporation
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Radiation)

Explanation

Expansion, conduction, convection and evaporation all involve the motion of molecules. Radiation is transfer by electromagnetic waves and needs no molecules, so molecular theory does not explain it.

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Question 27

Sound

In order to find the depth of the sea, a ship sends out a sound wave and receives an echo after one second. If the velocity of sound in water is 1500 m/s, what is the depth of the sea?

  1. A.0.75 km
  2. B.1.50 km
  3. C.2.20 km
  4. D.3.00 km
  5. E.3.75 km
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (0.75 km)

Explanation

The sound takes 0.5 s each way, so depth = 1500 × 0.5 = 750 m = 0.75 km.

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Question 28

Sound

When a sound wave passes from air into water its

  1. A.speed and frequency increase but its wavelength remains the same
  2. B.speed and wavelength increase but its frequency remains the same
  3. C.speed decreases
  4. D.speed remains the same but its frequency and wavelength change
  5. E.speed increases but its frequency and wavelength decrease.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (speed and wavelength increase but its frequency remains the same)

Explanation

Frequency is set by the source and does not change. Sound is faster in water, so λ = v/f gets longer too.

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Question 29

Sound

If the fundamental frequency of a closed pipe organ on a day when the speed of sound is 340 m s−1 is 170 Hz, then the length of the pipe is

  1. A.50 cm
  2. B.70 cm
  3. C.100 cm
  4. D.150 cm
  5. E.200 cm
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (50 cm)

Explanation

λ = v/f = 340/170 = 2 m. A closed pipe's fundamental has L = λ/4 = 0.5 m = 50 cm.

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Question 30

Light and Reflection

An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm. The image formed is

  1. A.virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror
  2. B.real and 60 cm in front of the mirror
  3. C.virtual and at infinity
  4. D.real and at infinity
  5. E.virtual and 40 cm from the mirror.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror)

Explanation

f = 20 cm and the object is inside f, so the image is virtual. 1/v = 1/20 − 1/15 = −1/60, so it is 60 cm behind the mirror.

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Question 31

Refraction of Light

A 45° triangular glass prism can be used as a reflector of light because

  1. A.refraction never takes place in such a prism
  2. B.the angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence
  3. C.the refractive index of glass is less than 1
  4. D.It is transparent
  5. E.the critical angle for glass is less than 45°.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (the critical angle for glass is less than 45°.)

Explanation

Light meets the long face at 45°, which is more than the critical angle of glass (about 42°), so it is totally internally reflected.

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Question 32

Light and Reflection

A convex mirror is used as a driving mirror because I. Its image is erect II. It has a large field of view III. It has a long focal length. Identify the CORRECT statement(s).

  1. A.I and III only
  2. B.I and II only
  3. C.II and III only
  4. D.I, II and III only
  5. E.I only
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (I and II only)

Explanation

A convex mirror always gives an upright image and shows a wide field of view; a long focal length is not the reason.

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Question 33

Refraction of Light

Two rays of light from a point below the surface of water are equally inclined to the vertical and are inclined to each other at 60° in water. What is the angle between the rays when they emerge into air? (Take the refractive index of water to be 4/3)

  1. A.41.8°
  2. B.44.1°
  3. C.60.0°
  4. D.83.6°
  5. E.120.0°
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (83.6°)

Explanation

Each ray meets the surface at 30°. sin r = (4/3) × sin 30° = 0.667, so r ≈ 41.8°. The emerging rays are 2 × 41.8° = 83.6° apart.

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Question 34

Dispersion of Light and Colours

A narrow beam of white light can be split up into different colours by a glass prism. The correct explanation is that

  1. A.white light is an electromagnetic wave
  2. B.the prism has all the colours of the white light
  3. C.white light has undergone total internal reflection in the prism
  4. D.different colours of white light travel with different speeds in glass
  5. E.white light consists of yellow, green and red colours.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (different colours of white light travel with different speeds in glass)

Explanation

Each colour travels at a different speed in glass, so each is refracted by a different amount and the colours spread out.

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Question 35

Conduction through Liquids and Gases

A charge of one coulomb liberates 0.0033 g of copper in an electrolytic process. How long will it take a current of 2 A to librate 1.98 g of copper in such a process?

  1. A.5 minutes
  2. B.30 minutes
  3. C.50 minutes
  4. D.60 minutes
  5. E.120 minutes
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (5 minutes)

Explanation

Charge needed = 1.98/0.0033 = 600 C. t = Q/I = 600/2 = 300 s = 5 minutes.

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Question 36

Electrostatics

If the distance between two stationary charged particles is doubled, the magnitude of the electrostatic force between them will be

  1. A.doubled
  2. B.halved
  3. C.a quarter of its former value
  4. D.unchanged
  5. E.four times the original value.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (a quarter of its former value)

Explanation

Coulomb's law is an inverse-square law, so doubling the distance gives (½)² = ¼ of the force.

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Question 37

Magnetism

Which of the following methods CANNOT be used to produce a steel magnet? The

  1. A.passing of an electric current through a solenoid
  2. B.repeated stroking of the specimen with a magnet
  3. C.repeated stroking of the specimen in opposite directions with two magnets
  4. D.heating of the specimen
  5. E.hammering of the specimen in the earth's magnetic field.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (heating of the specimen)

Explanation

Heating destroys magnetism by disordering the domains. The other methods line the domains up.

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Question 38

Current Electricity

A cell gives a current of 0.15 A through a resistance of 8 Ω and 0.3 A when the resistance is changed to 3 Ω. The internal resistance of the cell is

  1. A.0.05 Ω
  2. B.1.00 Ω
  3. C.1.50 Ω
  4. D.2.00 Ω
  5. E.2.50 Ω
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (2.00 Ω)

Explanation

E = 0.15(8 + r) = 0.3(3 + r). So 1.2 + 0.15r = 0.9 + 0.3r, giving 0.15r = 0.3 and r = 2 Ω.

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Question 39

Current Electricity

Which of the following will convert a milliammeter to a voltmeter?

  1. A.Low series resistance
  2. B.Low parallel resistance
  3. C.High series resistance
  4. D.High parallel resistance
  5. E.Parallel resistance equal to milliammeter resistance.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (High series resistance)

Explanation

A voltmeter must draw very little current, so a high resistance (multiplier) is put in series with the meter.

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Question 40

Current Electricity

Which of the graphs A − E (Fig. 3) represents the current-voltage (I − V) relationship for a cell with internal resistance?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.A
  2. B.B
  3. C.C
  4. D.D
  5. E.E
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (C)

Explanation

For a cell, V = E − Ir: the more current it supplies, the lower its terminal voltage. So I falls in a straight line as V rises, reaching zero when V equals the e.m.f., as in graph C.

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Question 41

Current Electricity

A wire P has half the diameter and half the length of a wire Q of similar material. The ratio of the resistance of P to that of Q is

  1. A.8 : 1
  2. B.4 : 1
  3. C.2 : 1
  4. D.1 : 1
  5. E.1 : 4
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (2 : 1)

Explanation

R ∝ L/d². For P: (½)/(½)² = 2 times Q's resistance, so the ratio is 2 : 1.

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Question 42

Electrical Energy and Power

An electric kettle, connected to a 240 V mains, produces 6.0 × 105 J of heat energy to boil a quantity of water in 5 minutes. Find the resistance of the kettle.

  1. A.14.4 Ω
  2. B.28.8 Ω
  3. C.144 Ω
  4. D.288 Ω
  5. E.2880 Ω
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (28.8 Ω)

Explanation

Power = 6.0 × 105/300 = 2000 W. R = V²/P = 240²/2000 = 28.8 Ω.

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Question 43

Magnetism

On which of the following does the operation of a moving coil ammeter depend? I. Electromagnetic induction II. Force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field. III. Magnetic effect of an electric current

  1. A.I only
  2. B.II only
  3. C.III only
  4. D.II and III
  5. E.I, II and III.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (II only)

Explanation

The current-carrying coil sits in a magnet's field and feels a turning force; that force turns the pointer.

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Question 44

Electrical Energy and Power

In Fig. 4, current (I) passes through the parallel combination. If the power dissipated in the 5 Ω resistor is 40 W, then the power dissipated in the 10 Ω resistor is

Diagram for this question
  1. A.10 W
  2. B.20 W
  3. C.40 W
  4. D.80 W
  5. E.100 W
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (20 W)

Explanation

The resistors are in parallel, so they have the same voltage and P = V²/R. Doubling R halves the power: 40/2 = 20 W.

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Question 45

Magnetism

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. A.A galvanometer can be converted to an ammeter with a different range by connecting a high resistance in series
  2. B.An electric current always produces a magnetic field
  3. C.Maxwell's screw rule states that if a corkscrew moves in the direction of the current, the hand turns in the direction of the lines of force
  4. D.Electromagnets are used in electric bells and telephone receivers.
  5. E.The lines of force round a straight current carrying conductor are circular.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (A galvanometer can be converted to an ammeter with a different range by connecting a high resistance in series)

Explanation

To make an ammeter a low resistance (shunt) is connected in parallel; a high series resistance makes a voltmeter.

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Question 46

Electromagnetic Induction

A transformer has a primary coil with 500 turns and a secondary coil with 2500 turns. When the voltage input to the primary coil is 120 V, the output is

  1. A.6000 V
  2. B.600 V
  3. C.240 V
  4. D.60 V
  5. E.24 V
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (600 V)

Explanation

Vs = Vp × Ns/Np = 120 × 2500/500 = 600 V.

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Question 47

Conduction through Liquids and Gases

Which of the following statements about electrolysis is NOT correct?

  1. A.The substances in solution in the electrolyte become ionized
  2. B.Ions are electrically charged and are attracted towards electrodes when a potential difference is applied
  3. C.Ions may be discharged at the electrodes, forming bubbles or deposits.
  4. D.The mass deposited depends upon the length of time for which current flows
  5. E.The mass of gas set free or metal deposited is proportional to the square of the current.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (The mass of gas set free or metal deposited is proportional to the square of the current.)

Explanation

By Faraday's first law the mass liberated is proportional to the charge (current × time), not to the square of the current.

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Question 48

Lenses and Optical Instruments

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. A.The average range of distinct vision for a normal eye is from the far distance (infinity) up to about 25 cm in front of the eye
  2. B.Longsighted people have difficulty in making the eye lens sufficiently powerful to focus on nearby objects.
  3. C.Shortsighted people cannot accommodate distant objects
  4. D.Longsighted people need diverging spectacle lenses
  5. E.A person with long sight has his eye-ball too short and the image of an object is therefore formed behind the retina.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Longsighted people need diverging spectacle lenses)

Explanation

Long sight is corrected with converging lenses, not diverging lenses.

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Question 49

Radioactivity and Nuclear Physics

Which of the following features is NOT a characteristic of natural radioactivity?

  1. A.Radioactivity is a nuclear phenomenon
  2. B.Radioactivity is exhibited only by elements of mass number greater than 206
  3. C.The radioactivity of an element is affected by electric and magnetic fields in the surroundings.
  4. D.Radioactive substances emit three types of radiations, α-rays, β-rays and γ-rays
  5. E.The radioactive element is transformed into a new element.
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Answer: C (The radioactivity of an element is affected by electric and magnetic fields in the surroundings.)

Explanation

Radioactive decay happens inside the nucleus and is not affected by outside conditions such as electric and magnetic fields, temperature or pressure.

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Question 50

Radioactivity and Nuclear Physics

What is the number of neutrons in the Uranium isotope 23892X?

  1. A.92
  2. B.146
  3. C.238
  4. D.330
  5. E.119
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Answer: B (146)

Explanation

Neutrons = mass number − atomic number = 238 − 92 = 146.

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