WAEC Geography 2025 past questions and answers

58 questions. Try each one, then open the answer to check yourself and read the explanation.

Question 2

Map Scale, Distance and Direction

Study the map of IJAMO DISTRICT to answer this question. What is the approximate bearing of Ebie from Oze?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.32°
  2. B.58°
  3. C.302°
  4. D.350°
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (302°)

Explanation

Ebie lies north-west of Oze, so its bearing is between 270° and 360°: about 302°.

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Question 3

Map Scale, Distance and Direction

Study the map of IJAMO DISTRICT to answer this question. What will be the new scale of the map in Representative Fraction if the map is enlarged to twice its original size?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.1 : 100,000
  2. B.1 : 200,000
  3. C.1 : 300,000
  4. D.1 : 400,000
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (1 : 100,000)

Explanation

Doubling the map makes 1 cm stand for half the ground distance: 1 : 200,000 becomes 1 : 100,000.

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Question 5

Relief and Map Interpretation

Study the map of IJAMO DISTRICT to answer this question. What is the likely occupation of the people of IJAMO settlement?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.Fishing
  2. B.Agriculture
  3. C.Mining
  4. D.Botany
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Agriculture)

Explanation

Scattered cultivation surrounds IJAMO, so the people are mainly farmers.

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Question 7

Map Scale, Distance and Direction

Study the map of IJAMO DISTRICT to answer this question. The distance in kilometres as the crow flies from Ofia to Yot is approximately

Diagram for this question
  1. A.7 kilometres.
  2. B.10 kilometres.
  3. C.15 kilometres.
  4. D.17 kilometres.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (10 kilometres.)

Explanation

Measure the straight line from Ofia to Yot (about 5 cm on the original map) and multiply by 2 km: about 10 km.

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Question 9

Relief and Map Interpretation

Study the map of IJAMO DISTRICT to answer this question. Ebie settlement is located in the

Diagram for this question
  1. A.northern part of the mapped area.
  2. B.western part of the mapped area.
  3. C.southern part of the mapped area.
  4. D.eastern part of the mapped area.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (northern part of the mapped area.)

Explanation

Ebie is near the top (north) edge of the map.

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Question 10

Relief and Map Interpretation

Study the map of IJAMO DISTRICT to answer this question. The symbol *845 in the northeastern part of the mapped area is known as

Diagram for this question
  1. A.hachure.
  2. B.spot height.
  3. C.benchmark.
  4. D.valley.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (spot height.)

Explanation

A dot or star with a height beside it is a spot height.

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Question 11

Climate

The table below shows the temperature and rainfall distribution of Station Q. Use it to answer this question.
Month: Jan, Feb, Mar, Apr, May, Jun, Jul, Aug, Sep, Oct, Nov, Dec
Temperature (°C): 21, 24, 26, 32, 31, 29, 27, 25, 27, 27, 26, 35
Rainfall (mm): 0, 0, 11, 13, 71, 121, 211, 302, 130, 12, 0, 0
What is the annual range of temperature for Station Q?

  1. A.14°C.
  2. B.21°C.
  3. C.27°C.
  4. D.35°C.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (14°C.)

Explanation

Highest 35°C (December, as printed) − lowest 21°C (January) = 14°C.

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Question 12

Climate

The table below shows the temperature and rainfall distribution of Station Q. Use it to answer this question.
Month: Jan, Feb, Mar, Apr, May, Jun, Jul, Aug, Sep, Oct, Nov, Dec
Temperature (°C): 21, 24, 26, 32, 31, 29, 27, 25, 27, 27, 26, 35
Rainfall (mm): 0, 0, 11, 13, 71, 121, 211, 302, 130, 12, 0, 0
How many months of dry season has the station?

  1. A.10
  2. B.5
  3. C.4
  4. D.2
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (4)

Explanation

January, February, November and December have no rain at all: 4 months.

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Question 13

Climate

The table below shows the temperature and rainfall distribution of Station Q. Use it to answer this question.
Month: Jan, Feb, Mar, Apr, May, Jun, Jul, Aug, Sep, Oct, Nov, Dec
Temperature (°C): 21, 24, 26, 32, 31, 29, 27, 25, 27, 27, 26, 35
Rainfall (mm): 0, 0, 11, 13, 71, 121, 211, 302, 130, 12, 0, 0
The annual rainfall recorded at Station Q is

  1. A.726 mm.
  2. B.871 mm.
  3. C.360 mm.
  4. D.148 mm.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (871 mm.)

Explanation

0 + 0 + 11 + 13 + 71 + 121 + 211 + 302 + 130 + 12 + 0 + 0 = 871 mm.

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Question 14

Weather

Which of the following types of rainfall occurs when airmasses of different characteristics meet and their air mixes?

  1. A.Convectional rainfall
  2. B.Relief rainfall
  3. C.Orographic rainfall
  4. D.Frontal rainfall
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Frontal rainfall)

Explanation

Where warm and cold air masses meet (a front) the warm air rises over the cold air and gives frontal (cyclonic) rain.

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Question 15

Coastal Landforms

Which coastal feature has the following characteristics? I. Produced by wave erosion II. Enlarges through alternate compression and expansion of air III. Connects the top of the cliff to the sea IV. Has narrow, chimney-like opening

  1. A.Blow hole
  2. B.Tombolo
  3. C.Beach
  4. D.Spit
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Blow hole)

Explanation

A blowhole is a vertical shaft from a sea cave to the cliff top, enlarged by compressed air.

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Question 16

Vegetation

The grass in the Savanna regions has adapted to the climate by

  1. A.growing very short and in layers.
  2. B.lying dormant during the long drought.
  3. C.having shallow roots which spread near the surface.
  4. D.having evergreen leaves.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (lying dormant during the long drought.)

Explanation

Savanna grass dries up and lies dormant in the dry season, then grows again when the rains come.

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Question 17

Weather

A line drawn on maps joining places of equal atmospheric pressure is called

  1. A.isohaline.
  2. B.isohyet.
  3. C.isobar.
  4. D.isoneph.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (isobar.)

Explanation

Isobars join places of equal pressure.

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Question 18

The Earth and Solar System

On the 22nd of December, the Sun is overhead at midday along the

  1. A.Tropic of Cancer.
  2. B.Arctic Circle.
  3. C.Antarctic Circle.
  4. D.Tropic of Capricorn.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Tropic of Capricorn.)

Explanation

At the December solstice the overhead sun is at 23½°S, the Tropic of Capricorn.

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Question 19

Weather

The temperature at the top of a mountain is 7°C. What will be the temperature at the foot of the mountain if it is 5000 metres above sea level?

  1. A.25.5°C
  2. B.32.5°C
  3. C.35.9°C
  4. D.39.5°C
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (39.5°C)

Explanation

Temperature rises 6.5°C for every 1,000 m descended: 5 × 6.5 = 32.5°C; 7 + 32.5 = 39.5°C.

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Question 20

The Earth and Solar System

On which of the following pairs of dates do solstices occur?

  1. A.21st June and 22nd December
  2. B.21st March and 23rd December
  3. C.21st March and 21st June
  4. D.23rd September and 22nd December
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (21st June and 22nd December)

Explanation

The solstices are 21 June and 22 December; 21 March and 23 September are equinoxes.

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Question 21

Weathering, Erosion and Mass Movement

Which of the following is a process of chemical weathering?

  1. A.Block disintegration
  2. B.Hydrolysis
  3. C.Exfoliation
  4. D.Salt wedging
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Hydrolysis)

Explanation

Hydrolysis is a chemical reaction between water and minerals such as feldspar; the others are mechanical.

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Question 22

Earth Movements and Vulcanicity

Rift valleys are landforms associated with

  1. A.folding.
  2. B.faulting.
  3. C.vulcanicity.
  4. D.residual mountain.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (faulting.)

Explanation

A rift valley is a block that has sunk between parallel faults.

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Question 23

Wind and Desert Landforms

Which of the following pairs of landforms are produced by wind erosion in hot deserts? I. Zeugen II. Seif III. Yardang IV. Barchan

  1. A.I and II only
  2. B.I and III only
  3. C.II and III only
  4. D.III and IV only
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (I and III only)

Explanation

Zeugen and yardangs are carved by wind erosion; seifs and barchans are dunes built by deposition.

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Question 24

The Earth and Solar System

A lunar eclipse occurs when the

  1. A.sun comes between the earth and the moon.
  2. B.moon comes between the sun and the stars.
  3. C.earth comes between the sun and the moon.
  4. D.sun misses its orbit.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (earth comes between the sun and the moon.)

Explanation

When the earth is between the sun and the moon, its shadow falls on the moon.

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Question 25

Structure of the Earth

The most useful function of the ozone layer in the atmosphere is to

  1. A.prevent evaporation of water from the earth's surface.
  2. B.absorb the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
  3. C.absorb ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
  4. D.absorb water vapour from the atmosphere.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (absorb ultraviolet radiation from the sun.)

Explanation

Ozone absorbs harmful ultraviolet rays that cause skin cancer and damage crops.

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Question 26

Structure of the Earth

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the components of the internal structure of the earth?

  1. A.Mantle, crust and core
  2. B.Crust, core and mantle
  3. C.Core, mantle and crust
  4. D.Mantle, core and crust.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Core, mantle and crust)

Explanation

From the centre outwards the layers are core, mantle and crust; only this option keeps the mantle between the other two.

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Question 27

The Earth and Solar System

The smallest and closest planet to the sun in the solar system is

  1. A.Mars.
  2. B.Mercury.
  3. C.Venus.
  4. D.Earth.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Mercury.)

Explanation

Mercury is both the smallest planet and the nearest to the sun.

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Question 28

Latitude, Longitude and Time

If someone in Town A located on longitude 135°E telephones a friend in Town B located on longitude 120°W at 10.00 a.m, at what time will his friend in Town B receive the call?

  1. A.5:00 a.m
  2. B.5:00 p.m
  3. C.4:00 p.m
  4. D.4:00 a.m
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (5:00 p.m)

Explanation

Difference = 135 + 120 = 255° × 4 min = 1,020 min = 17 hours; B is west, so its time is behind: 10.00 a.m. − 17 h = 5.00 p.m. (the previous day).

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Question 29

Rivers and River Landforms

A river's valley increases in length through the process of

  1. A.sheet erosion.
  2. B.vertical erosion.
  3. C.lateral erosion.
  4. D.headward erosion.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (headward erosion.)

Explanation

Headward erosion cuts back at the source, making the valley longer.

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Question 30

Earth Movements and Vulcanicity

Which of the following is an intrusive volcanic feature?

  1. A.Lopolith
  2. B.Lava cone
  3. C.Crater
  4. D.Composite cone
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Lopolith)

Explanation

A lopolith is a saucer-shaped mass of magma that solidified inside the crust.

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Question 31

Climate

A major characteristic of the Mediterranean climate is

  1. A.annual range of temperature is more than 50°C.
  2. B.a concentration of rainfall in winter and a dry warm summer.
  3. C.temperature range from 28°C in summer to 17°C in winter.
  4. D.annual rainfall is less than 250 mm.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (a concentration of rainfall in winter and a dry warm summer.)

Explanation

Mediterranean lands get their rain in winter and have hot, dry summers.

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Question 32

Underground Water and Karst

The diagram shows the interior view of a limestone cave. The landform marked X is

Diagram for this question
  1. A.stalagmite.
  2. B.grike.
  3. C.clint.
  4. D.stalactite.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (stalactite.)

Explanation

X hangs down from the roof of the cave, so it is a stalactite.

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Question 33

Rocks

Gabbro is an example of

  1. A.metamorphic rock.
  2. B.igneous rock.
  3. C.sedimentary rock.
  4. D.fossilized rock.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (igneous rock.)

Explanation

Gabbro is a coarse-grained igneous rock formed from slowly cooled basic magma.

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Question 34

Wind and Desert Landforms

The process by which strong winds lower the surface of deserts by lifting and blowing away of loose sand particles is known as

  1. A.abrasion.
  2. B.attrition.
  3. C.traction.
  4. D.deflation.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (deflation.)

Explanation

Deflation is the removal of loose material by wind.

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Question 35

Environmental Hazards and Conservation

The introduction of harmful substances into the environment is known as environmental

  1. A.pollution.
  2. B.balance.
  3. C.interaction.
  4. D.intervention.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (pollution.)

Explanation

Adding harmful substances to air, water or land is pollution.

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Question 36

Settlement

Which of the following is a function of urban settlements to rural settlements?

  1. A.Unemployment
  2. B.Administration
  3. C.Food crop supply
  4. D.Trade deficit
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Administration)

Explanation

Towns serve the surrounding villages as administrative centres; food supply flows the other way.

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Question 37

Transport, Trade and Tourism

A major reason for low volume of trade among West African countries is

  1. A.colonial ties.
  2. B.differences in climate.
  3. C.similarity of products.
  4. D.political instability.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (similarity of products.)

Explanation

Neighbouring countries produce similar goods (cocoa, palm oil, groundnuts), so they have little to sell to each other.

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Question 38

Manufacturing Industry

Which of the following classes of industry uses raw materials from agriculture, mining and fishing?

  1. A.Service industry
  2. B.Primary industry
  3. C.Secondary industry
  4. D.Tertiary industry
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Secondary industry)

Explanation

Secondary (manufacturing) industries process the raw materials produced by primary industries.

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Question 39

Transport, Trade and Tourism

One major reason for which air transportation is less patronized in Africa is due to the

  1. A.limited number of airports in Africa.
  2. B.discomfort of travelling by air.
  3. C.high airline operation taxes.
  4. D.expensive nature of travelling by air.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (expensive nature of travelling by air.)

Explanation

Air fares are too high for most Africans.

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Question 40

Population

One of the most effective ways of solving the problem of over-population in any country is by

  1. A.educating couples on the need to give birth to fewer children.
  2. B.advising citizens to emigrate to other countries and return to their home country a year later.
  3. C.sensitizing its citizens to engage in agriculture.
  4. D.discouraging rural-urban migration.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (educating couples on the need to give birth to fewer children.)

Explanation

Educating couples on family planning reduces the birth rate, which tackles over-population at its root.

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Question 41

Settlement

Farmsteads, hamlets, villages and towns are classifications of settlements based on

  1. A.function.
  2. B.location.
  3. C.size.
  4. D.shape.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (size.)

Explanation

These names describe settlements of increasing size.

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Question 42

Manufacturing Industry

Which of the following pairs are reasons for establishing industries in urban centres? I. Employment II. Revenue generation III. Religious tolerance IV. Unemployment creation

  1. A.I and II only
  2. B.II and IV only
  3. C.III and IV only
  4. D.I and IV only
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (I and II only)

Explanation

Industries are set up to provide jobs and generate revenue.

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Question 43

Transport, Trade and Tourism

Which of the following type of goods is offered for sale in the global market by most developing countries?

  1. A.Mining equipment
  2. B.Manufacturing goods
  3. C.Agricultural products
  4. D.Automobile
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Agricultural products)

Explanation

Most developing countries export primary products such as cocoa, coffee and cotton.

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Question 44

Transport, Trade and Tourism

The term resort is usually associated with

  1. A.tourism
  2. B.commerce.
  3. C.banking.
  4. D.refugee.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (tourism)

Explanation

A resort is a place people visit for holidays and recreation.

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Question 45

West Africa and ECOWAS

The membership of the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) consists of

  1. A.12 countries
  2. B.13 countries.
  3. C.15 countries.
  4. D.16 countries.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (12 countries)

Explanation

ECOWAS had 15 member countries until January 2025, when Mali, Burkina Faso and Niger left. It now has 12 members, including Nigeria, Ghana, Senegal and Côte d'Ivoire.

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Question 46

Population

Calculate the number of persons per square kilometre if a given country has a population of 100 million and a total land area of 500,000 km².

  1. A.20 persons per square kilometre
  2. B.50 persons per square kilometre
  3. C.200 persons per square kilometre
  4. D.5,000 persons per square kilometre
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (200 persons per square kilometre)

Explanation

100,000,000 ÷ 500,000 = 200 persons per km².

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Question 47

Manufacturing Industry

Which of the following is not a primary factor to be considered in the siting of industries in Tropical Africa?

  1. A.Existence of tertiary education institutions
  2. B.Nearness to market
  3. C.Nearness to source of raw materials
  4. D.Government policy on industrialization
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Existence of tertiary education institutions)

Explanation

Raw materials, market and government policy are main location factors; universities are not.

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Question 48

Mining and Energy

Which of the following pairs are renewable sources of energy?

  1. A.Coal and nuclear
  2. B.Natural gas and diesel
  3. C.Hydro-power and solar
  4. D.Nuclear and natural gas
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Hydro-power and solar)

Explanation

Running water and sunshine are not used up, so hydro and solar power are renewable.

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Question 50

Manufacturing Industry

An example of heavy industry is

  1. A.printing.
  2. B.food processing.
  3. C.household goods.
  4. D.ship building.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (ship building.)

Explanation

Shipbuilding uses huge amounts of steel, capital and space: heavy industry.

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Theory question 101

Settlement

(a) Highlight five characteristics of urban settlements in developing countries. (b) Explain five ways in which urban settlements depend on their surrounding rural settlements in developing countries.

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Model answer

(a) Large population and high density; mainly secondary and tertiary occupations; many social amenities; heterogeneous population; compact (nucleated) built-up area; modern buildings; slums and squatter settlements; traffic congestion; pollution; administrative and commercial functions.
(b) Rural areas supply food; raw materials for urban industries; labour (migrants); building materials (sand, timber); fuel wood and charcoal; market for manufactured goods; recreation and tourist sites; land for urban expansion.

Explanation

Explain each way briefly.

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Theory question 102

Transport, Trade and Tourism

(a) Define the term balance of trade. (b) Outline five factors that promote trade between Tropical Africa and the developed world. (c) Highlight four benefits of international trade to the economy of Tropical Africa.

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Model answer

(a) Balance of trade is the difference between the value of a country's visible exports and the value of its visible imports over a period, usually a year.
(b) Differences in natural resources and climate; Africa produces raw materials needed by developed industries; Africa needs manufactured goods and technology; colonial and historical ties; trade agreements and economic blocs; good shipping and communication links; foreign investment; need for foreign exchange.
(c) Foreign exchange earnings; access to goods not produced locally; employment; government revenue; transfer of technology and ideas; stimulates production and specialisation; foreign investment; international cooperation.

Explanation

Define with the word 'visible'.

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Theory question 103

Transport, Trade and Tourism

(a) What is pipeline transportation? (b) List two products transported by pipeline. (c) Outline four: (i) advantages of pipeline transportation in Tropical African countries; (ii) problems created by pipeline transportation in Tropical African countries.

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Model answer

(a) Pipeline transportation is the movement of liquids, gases or slurries over long distances through pipes.
(b) Crude oil; refined petroleum products (petrol, kerosene, diesel); natural gas; water; slurries (e.g. coal or cement).
(c)(i) Continuous, reliable flow; cheap to run once built; not affected by weather or terrain; reduces road traffic and accidents; safe for inflammable products; needs little labour.
(ii) High cost of construction; vandalism and theft (pipeline sabotage); oil spills polluting land and water; fire and explosions; displacement of people and loss of farmland; carries only liquids and gases; costly monitoring and maintenance.

Explanation

Advantages and problems as separate lists.

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Theory question 104

Nigeria: Physical Setting

(a) Draw an outline map of Nigeria. On the map, show and name: (i) one area that receives an annual rainfall of 2,000 mm - 3,000 mm; (ii) one area noted for the Sub-equatorial climate; (iii) one important town in 4(a)(ii). (b) Identify four factors that affect the distribution of rainfall in Nigeria. (c) Outline three characteristics of the Sub-equatorial climate in Nigeria.

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Model answer

(a) Outline of Nigeria with title, key and north arrow; a 2,000-3,000 mm belt along the south (e.g. Lagos to Port Harcourt/Calabar coastal area); the sub-equatorial belt across the south; a town in it such as Lagos, Warri, Port Harcourt, Calabar or Owerri.
(b) Latitude/distance from the sea; movement of the ITCZ and the two air masses (south-west and north-east winds); relief (e.g. Jos Plateau, eastern highlands); ocean currents; direction of the coast; vegetation.
(c) Heavy rainfall over 2,000 mm; double maxima with a short 'August break'; rain in most months, short dry season; high temperatures (about 27°C) with small annual range (2-3°C); high humidity; heavy cloud cover.

Explanation

Shade the southern belt on the map.

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Theory question 105

Agriculture, Fishing and Lumbering

(a) Outline five factors that promote the cultivation of cocoa in Nigeria. (b) Identify five solutions to the problems that limit the cultivation of cocoa in Nigeria.

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Model answer

(a) Rainfall of 1,250-2,000 mm well spread through the year; high temperature (about 27°C); deep, well-drained loamy soils; shade for young plants; gently undulating land; cheap labour; good transport to ports; research and extension (CRIN); ready world market.
(b) Supply improved, disease-resistant seedlings; control pests and diseases (black pod, capsids) with subsidised chemicals; credit and loans for farmers; replant old farms; better prices and marketing boards; extension services; land tenure reform; better rural roads and storage; encourage young people into farming; cooperatives.

Explanation

Five distinct points each.

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Theory question 106

Nigeria: People and Economy

(a) Draw an outline map of Nigeria. On the map, locate and name: (i) one area noted for high population density; (ii) Abuja. (b) Outline five reasons that have accounted for the high population density in 6(a)(i). (c) Country Z has a population of 140,000,000 and a total land area of 350,000 km². Calculate the population density of Country Z.

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Model answer

(a) Outline of Nigeria with title and north arrow; a densely populated area such as Lagos, the Kano close-settled zone, the Igbo heartland (Anambra/Imo) or the Ibadan-Oyo area; Abuja in the centre.
(b) (for the area chosen) Fertile soils; favourable climate; employment in industries and commerce; administrative headquarters; early contact with Europeans and old kingdoms; good transport; social amenities; rural-urban migration; high birth rate; security.
(c) Density = 140,000,000 ÷ 350,000 = 400 persons per km².

Explanation

Show the formula for density.

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Theory question 302

Statistical Maps and Diagrams

The Table C below shows the value of imported commodities by a country in the years 2016 to 2020. Study and use it to answer the questions that follow.
Table C (value of imported commodities in million Naira)
2016: 80
2017: 120
2018: 240
2019: 60
2020: 300
(a) Using a vertical scale of 2 cm to represent 40 million units of the value of imported commodities, construct a divergent bar graph to represent the data (b) State two disadvantages of divergent bar graphs.

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Model answer

(a) Mean = (80 + 120 + 240 + 60 + 300) ÷ 5 = 800 ÷ 5 = 160 million. Deviations: 2016 −80; 2017 −40; 2018 +80; 2019 −100; 2020 +140. Draw a horizontal base line for the mean (160); bars above for 2018 (4 cm) and 2020 (7 cm) and below for 2016 (4 cm), 2017 (2 cm) and 2019 (5 cm); equal widths, labelled years, axis, title and key.
(b) The actual values are not shown directly; calculating the mean and deviations takes time; difficult to read exact values; not suitable for many items; the base (mean) changes with the data, so graphs are hard to compare.

Explanation

Work out the mean first.

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Theory question 303

Structure of the Earth

(a) Define the term lithosphere. (b) State three characteristics of the lithosphere. (c) Outline five benefits of the lithosphere.

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Model answer

(a) The lithosphere is the solid outer layer of the earth, made up of the crust and the uppermost part of the mantle.
(b) Made of rocks and soil; consists of continental crust (sial) and oceanic crust (sima); thickness about 5-70 km (thicker under continents); broken into tectonic plates; has landforms such as mountains, plains and plateaus.
(c) Land for settlement and buildings; soil for agriculture; minerals and fossil fuels; building materials (sand, stone, clay); habitat for plants and animals; stores groundwater; tourism (landscapes); supports roads and other infrastructure.

Explanation

Name the two crust types.

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Theory question 304

Underground Water and Karst

(a) What is an artesian well? (b) Highlight four conditions that favour the formation of an artesian well. (c) Outline two usefulness of an artesian well.

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(a) An artesian well is a well from which water rises to the surface by its own pressure, from a permeable layer trapped between impermeable layers.
(b) A permeable rock layer (aquifer) sandwiched between two impermeable layers; the layers form a basin (syncline); the aquifer is exposed at the edges in a rainy area where water can enter; the well is sunk at a point lower than the intake area; adequate rainfall; the aquifer is not broken by faults that let water escape.
(c) Water for domestic use; irrigation; water for livestock (e.g. Great Artesian Basin, Australia); water for industry; supply in dry areas.

Explanation

Draw or describe the basin structure.

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Theory question 305

Weather

(a) State one difference between weather and climate. (b) With the aid of a diagram describe the mode of formation of cyclonic rainfall. (c) Highlight three benefits of cyclonic rainfall.

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(a) Weather is the condition of the atmosphere at a place over a short time, while climate is the average weather of a place over a long period (about 35 years).
(b) Diagram: warm air mass meeting cold air mass along a front, warm air rising over the wedge of cold air, clouds and rain at the front. Two air masses of different temperature and humidity meet; the lighter warm air is forced to rise over the denser cold air; it cools as it rises, reaches dew point and condenses into clouds; rain falls along the front (frontal/cyclonic rain), usually as long periods of steady rain.
(c) Water for agriculture; replenishes rivers, lakes and groundwater; water for domestic and industrial use; supports vegetation and wildlife; hydroelectric power; cools the weather.

Explanation

Show the front in the diagram.

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Theory question 306

Rivers and River Landforms

(a) What is a flood plain? (b) With the aid of a diagram, describe the characteristics and mode of formation of a flood plain.

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(a) A flood plain is the wide, flat land on both sides of a river in its lower course, built of alluvium deposited when the river floods.
(b) Diagram: cross-section of a river with levees and a broad flat valley floor bounded by bluffs. Characteristics: flat, low-lying land; made of fertile alluvium; found in the lower course on both banks; bounded by bluffs; often has meanders, ox-bow lakes and levees; floods in the rainy season. Formation: in the lower course the river is slow and carries much load; in the rainy season it overflows its banks; the floodwater spreads out and slows down, depositing silt over the valley floor; repeated floods build up layers of alluvium; meander migration widens the plain.

Explanation

Mention deposition during floods.

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Theory question 307

Wind and Desert Landforms

(a) List three processes of wind erosion. (b) Highlight three: (i) similarities between a zeugen and a yardang. (ii) differences between a zeugen and a yardang.

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(a) Deflation; abrasion (corrasion); attrition.
(b)(i) Similarities: both are formed by wind erosion; both are found in hot deserts; both develop where hard and soft rocks occur together; both are ridges separated by furrows; both are shaped by abrasion.
(ii) Differences: in a zeugen the hard and soft rock layers lie horizontally, in a yardang they lie vertically; a zeugen has a flat (tabular) top, a yardang a steep, ridged top; zeugen ridges lie at right angles (or any direction) to the wind, yardangs lie parallel to the wind; zeugens are separated by deep furrows, yardangs by long narrow corridors.

Explanation

State both sides of each difference.

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Theory question 308

Environmental Hazards and Conservation

(a) Define natural environment. (b) Highlight four ways by which mankind destroys the natural environment. (c) Outline two measures that can be adopted to control the destruction of the natural environment.

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(a) The natural environment is the surroundings that exist without human creation: land, water, air, climate, soils, plants and animals.
(b) Deforestation and bush burning; mining and quarrying; pollution of air, water and land (industrial waste, oil spills, refuse); overgrazing and poor farming practices causing erosion; urbanisation and construction; poaching and overhunting.
(c) Afforestation and reafforestation; enforcement of environmental laws; reclamation of mining sites; proper waste management and recycling; public education; controlled grazing and good farming practices; population control.

Explanation

Two measures, each explained.

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