WAEC Economics 2004 past questions and answers

55 questions. Try each one, then open the answer to check yourself and read the explanation.

Question 1

Basic Concepts

Which of the following is an economic activity?

  1. A.attending a town's meeting
  2. B.a visit to the stadium
  3. C.payment of school fees
  4. D.arresting a petty thief
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (payment of school fees)

Explanation

An economic activity involves using money or resources to satisfy wants; paying school fees buys a service (education).

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Question 2

Theory of Production

The reward for land as a factor of production is

  1. A.interest
  2. B.rent
  3. C.dividend
  4. D.wages
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (rent)

Explanation

Land earns rent.

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Question 3

Theory of Production

The three broad categories of production are

  1. A.direct, secondary and extractive
  2. B.primary, tertiary and direct
  3. C.primary, secondary and tertiary
  4. D.secondary, primary and indirect
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (primary, secondary and tertiary)

Explanation

Production is grouped into primary (extractive), secondary (manufacturing, construction) and tertiary (services).

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Question 4

Basic Concepts

A carpenter's consumer goods include I. a kilogram of rice II. 3 pairs of shoes III. 4 pairs of socks IV. 3 screw-drivers.

  1. A.I and IV only
  2. B.I, II, III and IV
  3. C.I, II and IV only
  4. D.I, II and III only
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (I, II and III only)

Explanation

Rice, shoes and socks satisfy the carpenter's personal wants; screwdrivers are tools for his work, so they are capital goods.

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Question 5

Economic Systems

In a capitalist system, the means of production is owned and controlled by

  1. A.the government
  2. B.politicians
  3. C.private individuals
  4. D.the workers
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (private individuals)

Explanation

Under capitalism, private individuals and firms own the means of production.

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Question 6

Economic Systems

Mixed economy refers to a system in which the means of production are controlled by

  1. A.private enterprise and the government
  2. B.private individuals
  3. C.the government only
  4. D.the workers and businessmen
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (private enterprise and the government)

Explanation

In a mixed economy, both the private sector and the government own and control productive resources.

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Question 7

Basic Concepts

An economic good is described as a good which

  1. A.yields utility and commands a price
  2. B.is useful and occupies a space
  3. C.is in high demand and transferable
  4. D.has unlimited supply
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (yields utility and commands a price)

Explanation

An economic good is scarce, gives satisfaction (utility) and so has a price.

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Question 8

Basic Concepts

The concept of opportunity cost is important to the firm because it

  1. A.determines the prices of the firm's products
  2. B.increases the level of output of the firm
  3. C.leads to maximum satisfaction of the consumers
  4. D.guides firms in allocating scarce resources
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (guides firms in allocating scarce resources)

Explanation

Comparing the alternatives given up helps a firm decide how best to use its limited resources.

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Question 9

Theory of Production

As a firm expands, it enjoys some advantages called

  1. A.variable proportions
  2. B.diminishing marginal returns
  3. C.internal economies of scale
  4. D.decreasing returns to scale.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (internal economies of scale)

Explanation

The cost advantages a firm gets from its own growth are internal economies of scale.

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Question 11

Theory of Costs and Revenue

An entrepreneur is likely to make more profits when

  1. A.expenditure is more than revenue
  2. B.competitors charge lower prices
  3. C.cost per unit output falls
  4. D.quantity of output reduces
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (cost per unit output falls)

Explanation

If cost per unit falls while price stays the same, profit per unit rises.

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Question 12

Population

Natural growth rate is

  1. A.birth rate less death rate
  2. B.death rate less migration
  3. C.death rate plus birth rate
  4. D.birth rate plus migration
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (birth rate less death rate)

Explanation

Natural increase = birth rate − death rate (migration is not included).

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Question 13

Population

A major effect of ageing population is

  1. A.reduced labour force
  2. B.rise in prices of commodities
  3. C.reduced infrastructure
  4. D.neglect of agriculture
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (reduced labour force)

Explanation

When a larger share of people are old and retired, the working (labour) force shrinks.

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Question 14

Distributive Trade

One of the problems associated with the middleman in the distribution of goods is that he

  1. A.buys in large quantities
  2. B.hoards goods
  3. C.grants credit to the retailer
  4. D.sells varieties of goods
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (hoards goods)

Explanation

Middlemen sometimes hoard goods to create artificial scarcity and raise prices.

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Question 15

Distributive Trade

The distribution of goods is said to be completed when it reaches the

  1. A.wholesalers
  2. B.consumers
  3. C.retailers
  4. D.manufacturers
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (consumers)

Explanation

Production and distribution are complete only when goods reach the final consumer.

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Question 16

Price Determination

The gap between demand and supply curves below the equilibrium price indicates

  1. A.excess demand
  2. B.excess supply
  3. C.equilibrium quantity
  4. D.equilibrium price
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (excess demand)

Explanation

Below equilibrium price, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied, giving excess demand (a shortage).

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Question 18

Elasticity

When a change in price does not affect the quantity demanded of a commodity, the price elasticity of demand is

  1. A.fairly inelastic
  2. B.infinitely elastic
  3. C.perfectly inelastic
  4. D.unitary elastic
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (perfectly inelastic)

Explanation

If quantity does not change at all when price changes, elasticity is zero: perfectly inelastic.

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Question 23

Market Structures

For both the monopolist and the perfectly competitive firm, profit maximizing output occurs at the point where the

  1. A.marginal cost curve cuts the marginal revenue curve from below
  2. B.marginal revenue curve cuts the marginal output from above
  3. C.marginal cost curve intersects the X-axis
  4. D.marginal revenue curve intersects the Y-axis
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (marginal cost curve cuts the marginal revenue curve from below)

Explanation

Every firm maximises profit where MC = MR, with MC rising, i.e. MC cuts MR from below.

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Question 24

Market Structures

The market structure in which the operators are many and none of them can influence the price is

  1. A.imperfect market
  2. B.perfect market
  3. C.oligopolistic market
  4. D.stock market
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (perfect market)

Explanation

In a perfect market there are very many buyers and sellers, so each is a price taker.

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Question 25

Business Organisations

One main benefit of partnership is

  1. A.the possibility of raising funds on the stock exchange
  2. B.the possibility of attracting twenty-one or more members
  3. C.that members can specialize in various functions
  4. D.that it enjoys its own separate legal entity
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (that members can specialize in various functions)

Explanation

Partners can divide the work according to their skills; partnerships cannot sell shares on the stock exchange and have no separate legal entity.

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Question 26

Business Organisations

Joint ventures are partnerships involving

  1. A.the poor and the rich
  2. B.employers and workers
  3. C.government and private investors
  4. D.multinationals and individuals
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (government and private investors)

Explanation

A joint venture is jointly owned, typically by government and private (often foreign) investors.

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Question 27

Money and Inflation

The value of money is best determined by

  1. A.input-output ratio
  2. B.the purchasing power
  3. C.the importance people attach to it
  4. D.economies of scale
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (the purchasing power)

Explanation

The value of money is the quantity of goods and services it can buy.

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Question 28

Money and Inflation

Which of the following will be an effect of inflation?

  1. A.Wage earners will gain
  2. B.Borrowing of money will be restricted
  3. C.Money lenders will gain
  4. D.Borrowers of money will gain
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Borrowers of money will gain)

Explanation

Borrowers repay with money that has lost value, so they gain during inflation.

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Question 29

Money and Inflation

Government can control inflation by

  1. A.printing more money
  2. B.reducing the rate of taxes
  3. C.reducing the level of expenditure
  4. D.establishing more banks
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (reducing the level of expenditure)

Explanation

Cutting government spending reduces aggregate demand and so reduces inflation.

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Question 30

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

The market consisting of a network of dealers where currencies can be bought and sold is known as

  1. A.capital market
  2. B.foreign exchange market
  3. C.commodity market
  4. D.the stock market
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (foreign exchange market)

Explanation

Currencies are traded in the foreign exchange market.

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Question 31

Financial Institutions

Open Market Operation (OMO) means the

  1. A.provision of credit facilities by commercial banks
  2. B.provision of credit facilities by the mortgage banks
  3. C.buying and selling of government securities by the central bank
  4. D.procedure for the establishment of commercial banks
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (buying and selling of government securities by the central bank)

Explanation

OMO is the central bank buying or selling government securities to change the money supply.

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Question 33

Industrialisation

Which of the following will ensure efficiency in the industrial sector of your country?

  1. A.indigenization
  2. B.privatisation
  3. C.nationalization
  4. D.liquidation
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (privatisation)

Explanation

Private owners driven by profit tend to run enterprises more efficiently than government.

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Question 34

Labour Market

The number of people who are qualified to work and who offer themselves for employment are called

  1. A.migrant labour
  2. B.working population
  3. C.labour turnover
  4. D.mobility of labour
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (working population)

Explanation

The working population (labour force) is those of working age who are able and willing to work.

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Question 35

Money and Inflation

When the general price level persistently falls, the rate of unemployment

  1. A.rises
  2. B.stagnates
  3. C.rapidly reduces
  4. D.equals natural growth rate
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (rises)

Explanation

Falling prices (deflation) reduce profits and production, so firms lay off workers and unemployment rises.

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Question 36

Agriculture

Which of the following is not a direct effort to increase agricultural production?

  1. A.operation feed the nation
  2. B.use of improved seedlings
  3. C.increased loans to farmers and co-operative societies
  4. D.National Youth Service Corps
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (National Youth Service Corps)

Explanation

The NYSC is a national service scheme for graduates, not a farm programme.

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Question 37

Labour Market

To ensure high employment rates, developing countries should

  1. A.build more universities
  2. B.protect infant industries
  3. C.organise trade fairs
  4. D.prevent rural-urban drift
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (protect infant industries)

Explanation

Protecting young local industries helps them grow and employ more workers.

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Question 38

International Trade

The act of selling goods in foreign markets at prices below those charged at home markets is called

  1. A.exchange
  2. B.specialisation
  3. C.dumping
  4. D.exporting
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (dumping)

Explanation

Dumping is selling abroad more cheaply than at home (often below cost).

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Question 39

Public Finance

Taxes levied on commodities are

  1. A.direct taxes
  2. B.indirect taxes
  3. C.poll taxes
  4. D.investment taxes
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (indirect taxes)

Explanation

Taxes on goods are indirect because their burden can be shifted to consumers.

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Question 40

Public Finance

One disadvantage of direct taxes is that

  1. A.government's revenue is reduced
  2. B.price of essential commodities fall
  3. C.people are discouraged from additional work
  4. D.firms make more profits
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (people are discouraged from additional work)

Explanation

High income taxes reduce the reward for extra work, so they may discourage effort.

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Question 41

International Trade

International trade is an application of the principle of

  1. A.industrial production
  2. B.mass production
  3. C.national co-operation
  4. D.comparative cost advantage
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (comparative cost advantage)

Explanation

Countries trade because each specialises where its opportunity cost is lowest: comparative advantage.

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Question 42

International Trade

Trade among West African countries is poor because the

  1. A.countries are self-sufficient
  2. B.communication lines are weak
  3. C.number of banks is insufficient
  4. D.people are not enterprising
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (communication lines are weak)

Explanation

Poor transport and communication links between West African countries limit trade among them.

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Question 43

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

A policy by which governments restrict the amount of foreign currencies bought and sold is known as

  1. A.devaluation
  2. B.credit creation
  3. C.exchange control
  4. D.export promotion
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (exchange control)

Explanation

Exchange control is government regulation of the buying and selling of foreign currency.

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Question 44

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

Which of the following items is under the capital account of a balance of payments?

  1. A.repayments of foreign loans
  2. B.visible imports
  3. C.invisible exports
  4. D.visible exports
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (repayments of foreign loans)

Explanation

Loans and their repayment are capital movements; imports and exports are current account items.

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Question 45

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

Surplus in the balance of payments should be used to

  1. A.subsidize multinational companies
  2. B.build infrastructure for friendly nations
  3. C.make donation to developed countries
  4. D.buy investments overseas
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (buy investments overseas)

Explanation

A surplus can be invested abroad (or added to reserves) to earn future income.

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Question 46

Economic Growth and Development

Development planning which takes an overall view of the economy is described as

  1. A.aggregate economic planning
  2. B.disaggregated economic planning
  3. C.sectoral economic planning
  4. D.project economic planning
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (aggregate economic planning)

Explanation

Aggregate (comprehensive) planning covers the whole economy; sectoral planning covers one sector.

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Question 47

National Income

The national income of a country can be estimated by the

  1. A.cost-benefit method
  2. B.distribution method
  3. C.expenditure method
  4. D.consumption method
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (expenditure method)

Explanation

National income is measured by the output, income and expenditure methods.

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Question 48

National Income

Which of the following is excluded when estimating national income?

  1. A.dividends
  2. B.wages and salaries
  3. C.transfer payments
  4. D.profits
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (transfer payments)

Explanation

Transfer payments (pensions, gifts) are not payments for current production, so they are left out to avoid double counting.

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Question 49

International Economic Organisations

The Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) has been slow in achieving its objectives because of

  1. A.political instability in member states
  2. B.the activities of multinationals
  3. C.inadequate personnel at the secretariat
  4. D.inadequate international support.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (political instability in member states)

Explanation

Coups and civil wars in member states have disrupted ECOWAS programmes.

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Question 50

Natural Resources and Petroleum

A major achievement of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is that

  1. A.crude oil price has increased tremendously
  2. B.petroleum products prices have remained low
  3. C.producing countries are highly industrialized
  4. D.price of crude oil has remained relatively stable
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (price of crude oil has remained relatively stable)

Explanation

By controlling members' output quotas, OPEC has helped to keep crude oil prices relatively stable.

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Theory question 101

Market Structures

Section A (data response: answer one question only from this section)
(a) When is a monopoly in equilibrium?
Use the diagram below to answer the questions that follow.
(b)(i) Which of the curves represents the monopoly demand curve? (ii) What is the point d on the diagram? (iii) State the equilibrium price and quantity. (iv) Which area represents the monopoly profits?
(c) If P1 = 5 Naira and q1 = 50 units and C = 2 Naira, determine the monopoly profit.

Diagram for this question
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Model answer

(a) A monopolist is in equilibrium (maximising profit) when marginal cost equals marginal revenue (MC = MR), with MC cutting MR from below.
(b)(i) The AR curve is the monopolist's demand curve.
(ii) d is the point where MC = MR: the equilibrium (profit-maximising) point.
(iii) Equilibrium quantity is Oq1; equilibrium price is OP1 (read up from q1 to the AR curve).
(iv) The rectangle P1abC (the gap between price and average cost multiplied by output).
(c) Profit = (price − average cost) × quantity = (5 − 2) × 50 = N150 (TR = 250, TC = 100).

Explanation

Output is set where MC = MR; price is read from the demand (AR) curve above that output.

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Theory question 102

Theory of Costs and Revenue

Section A (data response: answer one question only from this section)
The table below represents the output level of a particular firm producing soft drinks. Use the information in the table to answer the questions that follow.
OUTPUT [Units]: 0, 12, 23, 36, 48, 58
Given the cost equation of the firm in Naira as C = 20 + 2q where C is total cost and q is quantity produced calculate: (a) the total cost of producing: (i) 12 units of output (ii) 36 units of output (b) the average cost when: (i) 48 units were produced (ii) 58 units were produced (c) the marginal cost when: (i) 23 units were produced (ii) 36 units were produced (d) If the firm is operating in a perfectly competitive market and the market price is N5 per unit, determine the profit when: (i) 23 units are produced (ii) 48 units are produced

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Model answer

(a)(i) C = 20 + 2(12) = N44. (ii) C = 20 + 2(36) = N92.
(b)(i) TC = 20 + 96 = N116; AC = 116 ÷ 48 ≈ N2.42. (ii) TC = 20 + 116 = N136; AC = 136 ÷ 58 ≈ N2.34.
(c) Each extra unit adds N2 to total cost, so MC = N2 at any output. (i) From 12 to 23 units: (66 − 44) ÷ 11 = N2. (ii) From 23 to 36 units: (92 − 66) ÷ 13 = N2.
(d)(i) TR = 5 × 23 = N115; TC = 20 + 46 = N66; profit = N49. (ii) TR = 5 × 48 = N240; TC = N116; profit = N124.

Explanation

Total cost = fixed part (20) + 2 × output; profit = TR − TC.

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Theory question 103

Population

Section B (answer four questions only from this section)
(a) Explain any two causes of a declining population.
(b) Outline any three factors which determine the size of your country's working population.

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Model answer

(a) Any two, explained: fall in birth rate (family planning, late marriage, education of women, high cost of raising children); rise in death rate (wars, epidemics, famine, natural disasters); net emigration (more people leaving than arriving).
(b) Any three: size of total population; age structure (proportion aged about 15–65); school-leaving age and length of education; retirement age; number of women in paid work (custom, religion); health of the population; government policy, e.g. on child labour; migration.

Explanation

Two causes in (a), three factors in (b).

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Theory question 104

Theory of Demand

Section B (answer four questions only from this section)
(a) Describe each of the following: (i) Abnormal demand (ii) Effective demand
(b) Give three reasons for the occurrence of abnormal demand.

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Model answer

(a)(i) Abnormal demand (exceptional demand) is demand that does not obey the law of demand: more is bought when price rises, or less when price falls, so the demand curve slopes upward.
(ii) Effective demand is the desire for a commodity backed by the ability and willingness to pay for it at a given price and time.
(b) Any three: Giffen goods (inferior staples bought more when their price rises); goods of ostentation/prestige (articles of conspicuous consumption); expectation of further price rises (or of further falls); ignorance – buyers judge quality by price; emergencies/necessities, e.g. during war or scarcity.

Explanation

Abnormal demand gives an upward-sloping demand curve.

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Theory question 105

Price Determination

Section B (answer four questions only from this section)
(a) Outline any two objectives of a price control policy.
(b) Highlight any three effects of a maximum price control policy.

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Model answer

(a) Any two: to protect consumers from exploitation; to make essential goods affordable to the poor; to control inflation; to protect producers/farmers with minimum prices; to stabilise prices; to protect workers with minimum wages.
(b) Any three: shortage (excess demand) because the price is below equilibrium; black markets and hoarding; queues and rationing; fall in supply as producers lose interest; corruption and favouritism in distribution; low-income consumers get the goods more cheaply if supplies are available.

Explanation

A maximum price is set below equilibrium.

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Theory question 106

Business Organisations

Section B (answer four questions only from this section)
(a) What are public corporations?
(b) State any four merits of public corporations

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Model answer

(a) Public corporations are business enterprises set up by an Act of parliament or decree, owned, financed and controlled by government and run by a board appointed by government, mainly to provide essential services, e.g. power, railways.
(b) Any four: provide essential services at affordable prices; prevent private monopolies exploiting consumers; can undertake projects too large for private firms; create employment; profits go to government for public use; encourage balanced development (services in rural areas); protect national security in strategic industries.

Explanation

Four distinct merits are needed.

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Theory question 107

Industrialisation

Section B (answer four questions only from this section)
(a) Distinguish between: (i) a firm and an industry (ii) location and localization of industry
(b) Describe any four factors which influence the location of industries in your country.

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Model answer

(a)(i) A firm is a single business unit producing goods or services under one management; an industry is the group of all firms producing the same or similar product.
(ii) Location of industry is the choice of the place where a firm or industry is sited; localisation is the concentration of many firms of the same industry in one particular area.
(b) Any four: nearness to raw materials; nearness to market; availability of power and water; availability of transport; availability of labour; government policy; availability of land and finance; external economies/existing industries; climate and security.

Explanation

Explain how each factor affects cost or convenience.

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Theory question 108

Agriculture

Section B (answer four questions only from this section)
(a) Explain any four reasons why small-scale farmers dominate agricultural production in your country.
(b) Suggest any two measures that can be taken to encourage large scale farming in your country.

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Model answer

(a) Any four: lack of capital and credit to expand; land tenure system and fragmentation of land; use of simple tools that limit acreage; illiteracy and traditional methods; farming as a way of life (subsistence); small and scattered markets; poor infrastructure and storage; lack of modern inputs.
(b) Any two: give credit/loans at low interest to farmers; land reform to make large plots available; supply of tractors and machinery at subsidised rates; extension services and training; good guaranteed prices and markets; provision of rural infrastructure; encourage co-operatives.

Explanation

Four reasons in (a), two measures in (b).

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Theory question 109

Financial Institutions

Section B (answer four questions only from this section)
(a) Distinguish between: (i) a mortgage bank and a merchant bank. (ii) a commercial bank and a development bank.
(b) Explain any four functions of commercial banks.

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Model answer

(a)(i) A mortgage bank gives long-term loans for building or buying houses, using the property as security; a merchant bank gives medium- and long-term finance to businesses, accepts bills of exchange, underwrites new share issues and advises firms.
(ii) A commercial bank accepts deposits from the public and gives mainly short-term loans and overdrafts for profit; a development bank gives long-term loans for development projects in particular sectors (industry, agriculture) and does not usually take deposits from the public.
(b) Any four: accept deposits; give loans and overdrafts; operate the cheque system; credit creation; safe keeping of valuables; foreign exchange services; act as agents (paying bills, standing orders); advise customers; discount bills of exchange.

Explanation

Explain each function, not just list it.

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Theory question 110

Public Finance

Section B (answer four questions only from this section)
(a) What is a tax?
(b) Describe any four principles of a good tax system.

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Model answer

(a) A tax is a compulsory payment levied by government on persons, firms or goods, for which the payer receives no direct benefit in return, used to finance government spending.
(b) Any four (canons of taxation): Equity – tax based on ability to pay; Certainty – the amount, time and method of payment are clear; Convenience – paid at a time and in a way convenient to the taxpayer; Economy – the cost of collection is low compared with the yield; Flexibility – easy to change as conditions change; Productivity – it yields enough revenue; Simplicity – easy to understand; Neutrality – it does not discourage work or investment.

Explanation

Name each principle and explain it.

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Theory question 111

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

Section B (answer four questions only from this section)
Explain each of the following terms: (a) Export promotion (b) Depreciation (c) Terms of trade (d) Balance of trade

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Model answer

(a) Export promotion: government measures to increase the volume and value of exports, e.g. export subsidies, tax rebates, trade fairs, export credit and better quality control.
(b) Depreciation: a fall in the value of a country's currency in terms of other currencies under a floating exchange rate (also: the fall in value of capital assets through wear and tear).
(c) Terms of trade: the rate at which a country's exports exchange for its imports, measured as (index of export prices ÷ index of import prices) × 100.
(d) Balance of trade: the difference between the value of a country's visible exports and visible imports in a period; it is favourable (surplus) if exports exceed imports.

Explanation

Give a definition and a short example or formula for each.

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Theory question 112

National Income

Section B (answer four questions only from this section)
(a) Define Gross National Product (GNP).
(b) Describe the three methods of measuring national income.

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Model answer

(a) GNP is the total money value of all final goods and services produced by a country's residents in a year, i.e. GDP plus net factor income from abroad.
(b) Output (product) method: add the value added (or value of final goods and services) by all sectors of the economy, avoiding double counting.
Income method: add all incomes earned by factors of production in producing the output – wages, rent, interest and profits – leaving out transfer payments.
Expenditure method: add all spending on final goods and services – consumption (C), investment (I), government spending (G) and net exports (X − M).
All three should give the same total.

Explanation

Mention how double counting is avoided in each method.

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