WAEC Economics 2019 past questions and answers

56 questions. Try each one, then open the answer to check yourself and read the explanation.

Question 1

Basic Concepts

The fundamental economic problem in every society is

  1. A.the large number of the unemployed.
  2. B.inadequate supply of money.
  3. C.corruption and mismanagement.
  4. D.limited supply of productive resources.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (limited supply of productive resources.)

Explanation

Every society faces scarcity: limited resources against unlimited wants.

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Question 2

Basic Concepts

A point X inside a production possibility curve indicates that

  1. A.resources are fully utilized.
  2. B.the country is poor.
  3. C.some resources are idle.
  4. D.resources are not available.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (some resources are idle.)

Explanation

A point inside the curve means some resources are unemployed or wasted.

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Question 3

Economic Growth and Development

The major employer of labour in developing countries is the

  1. A.tertiary sector.
  2. B.secondary sector.
  3. C.primary sector.
  4. D.industrial sector.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (primary sector.)

Explanation

Most workers in developing countries are in farming, fishing and mining: the primary sector.

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Question 4

Economic Systems

The desire for profit is a major feature of

  1. A.traditional economy.
  2. B.mixed economy.
  3. C.market economy.
  4. D.command economy.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (market economy.)

Explanation

The profit motive drives production in a market (capitalist) economy.

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Question 5

Tools of Economic Analysis

The wages of a group of workers in dollars are stated below: 40, 30, 70, 20, 60, 10, 10, 80, 30 and 10. What is the mean wage?

  1. A.$35
  2. B.$36
  3. C.$37
  4. D.$38
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B ($36)

Explanation

Sum = 360; 360 ÷ 10 = $36.

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Question 6

Elasticity

If the coefficient of price elasticity of demand of a product is zero, then its demand curve will be

  1. A.parallel to the quantity axis.
  2. B.parallel to the price axis.
  3. C.negatively sloped.
  4. D.positively sloped.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (parallel to the price axis.)

Explanation

Zero elasticity means a vertical demand curve, i.e. parallel to the price (vertical) axis.

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Question 7

Theory of Demand

If the demand function is Qd = −0.5p + 20, calculate the quantity demanded when price is $15.00.

  1. A.−$27.50
  2. B.−$12.50
  3. C.$12.50
  4. D.$27.50
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C ($12.50)

Explanation

Qd = −0.5 × 15 + 20 = −7.5 + 20 = 12.50.

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Question 8

Theory of Demand

If less of a good is bought as one's income increases, such a good is

  1. A.a normal good.
  2. B.a luxury.
  3. C.a necessity.
  4. D.an inferior good.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (an inferior good.)

Explanation

Demand for an inferior good falls when income rises.

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Question 9

Theory of Demand

The demand for coffee and tea is

  1. A.joint.
  2. B.competitive.
  3. C.composite.
  4. D.derived.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (competitive.)

Explanation

Coffee and tea are substitutes, so their demand is competitive.

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Question 10

Price Determination

What effect will an increase in the supply of fish have on the meat market?

  1. A.A fall in equilibrium price and quantity.
  2. B.An increase in equilibrium price and quantity.
  3. C.An increase in equilibrium price and a fall in quantity.
  4. D.Both equilibrium price and quantity remain unchanged.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (A fall in equilibrium price and quantity.)

Explanation

Cheaper fish draws buyers away from meat, so demand for meat falls: its price and quantity both fall.

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Question 11

Theory of Supply

Which of the following factors is not a condition for a change in supply of a commodity?

  1. A.Improved technology
  2. B.Cost of production
  3. C.The price of the commodity
  4. D.Government tax policies
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (The price of the commodity)

Explanation

A change in the good's own price changes quantity supplied, not supply.

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Question 12

Elasticity

Supply of agricultural products is likely to be elastic in the

  1. A.intermediate period.
  2. B.long-run.
  3. C.market period
  4. D.short-run.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (long-run.)

Explanation

Farmers need time to plant and harvest, so supply becomes elastic only in the long run.

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Question 13

Theory of Supply

Two commodities X and Y are in joint supply when

  1. A.X is a by-product of Y.
  2. B.X and Y are produced by the same process.
  3. C.increase in quantity of X leads to decrease in Y.
  4. D.X and Y cannot be produced in the same firm.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (X and Y are produced by the same process.)

Explanation

Jointly supplied goods come out of the same production process.

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Question 14

Theory of Consumer Behaviour

Use the table below (Table I) to answer the question.
Units of quantity consumed | Total Utility | Marginal Utility
0 | - | -
1 | 10 | 10
2 | 15 | 5
3 | 17 | 2
4 | 18 | 1
5 | 18 | 0
Table I illustrates the law of

  1. A.diminishing returns
  2. B.diminishing marginal productivity.
  3. C.diminishing marginal utility.
  4. D.variable proportion.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (diminishing marginal utility.)

Explanation

Marginal utility falls from 10 to 0 as more units are consumed.

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Question 15

Price Determination

When the price of a good is above the equilibrium, there will be

  1. A.a shortage.
  2. B.a surplus.
  3. C.unemployment
  4. D.inflation.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (a surplus.)

Explanation

Above equilibrium, quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded.

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Question 16

Price Determination

What happens when a minimum price is imposed in a market?

  1. A.Shortage occurs.
  2. B.Surplus occurs
  3. C.The market maintains its equilibrium
  4. D.Many firms will close down
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Surplus occurs)

Explanation

A minimum price above equilibrium creates a surplus.

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Question 17

Theory of Production

When an increase in inputs leads to a more than proportionate increase in output, there is

  1. A.decreasing returns to scale.
  2. B.increase in marginal product.
  3. C.increasing returns to scale.
  4. D.constant returns to scale.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (increasing returns to scale.)

Explanation

Output rising faster than inputs is increasing returns to scale.

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Question 18

Theory of Production

The short-run in production is the time period when

  1. A.techniques of production can easily be changed.
  2. B.all factors of production are variable.
  3. C.at least a factor is fixed while others are variable.
  4. D.variable factors cannot be changed.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (at least a factor is fixed while others are variable.)

Explanation

In the short run at least one factor is fixed.

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Question 19

Theory of Costs and Revenue

Table II shows the short-run cost of a firm.
Quantity (kg) | Fixed Cost ($) | Variable Cost ($) | Total Cost ($) | Marginal Cost ($) | Average ($)
1 | 750 | 200 | 950 | – | 950
2 | 750 | 560 | 1310 | 360 | 655
3 | 750 | 900 | P | Q | 550
Calculate the value of Q

  1. A.$350
  2. B.$340
  3. C.$360
  4. D.$370
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B ($340)

Explanation

P = 750 + 900 = $1,650; Q = MC = 1,650 − 1,310 = $340.

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Question 20

Theory of Costs and Revenue

A cost of production that is positively related to output is the

  1. A.total fixed cost.
  2. B.average fixed cost.
  3. C.variable cost.
  4. D.social cost.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (variable cost.)

Explanation

Variable cost rises as output rises.

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Question 21

Market Structures

In perfect competition, the average revenue curve of a firm is

  1. A.below the marginal revenue curve.
  2. B.downward sloping.
  3. C.the marginal revenue curve.
  4. D.convex to the origin.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (the marginal revenue curve.)

Explanation

A perfect competitor sells every unit at the same price, so AR = MR: one horizontal line.

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Question 22

Business Organisations

Which of the following means of funding a business is very reliable and cheap?

  1. A.Bank loans
  2. B.Loans from friends
  3. C.Plough back profits
  4. D.Debentures
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Plough back profits)

Explanation

Retained (ploughed-back) profits carry no interest and need no outside approval.

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Question 23

Industrialisation

Government in most cases influences location of firms to

  1. A.discourage private investors.
  2. B.ensure equitable distribution.
  3. C.reduce cost of production.
  4. D.make the firms enjoy economies of scale.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (ensure equitable distribution.)

Explanation

Government spreads industries to different areas so development is evenly shared.

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Question 24

Distributive Trade

Middlemen are made up of

  1. A.manufacturers, wholesalers and consumers.
  2. B.manufacturers, wholesalers and retailers.
  3. C.wholesalers, retailers and hawkers.
  4. D.wholesalers, retailers and consumers.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (wholesalers, retailers and hawkers.)

Explanation

Middlemen stand between producers and consumers: wholesalers and retailers (including hawkers).

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Question 25

Population

The Malthusian theory of population was proved wrong because

  1. A.the practice of subsistence farming was encouraged.
  2. B.developing countries adopted birth control method.
  3. C.new lands and new methods of production were discovered.
  4. D.Malthus' view was seen as an exaggeration.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (new lands and new methods of production were discovered.)

Explanation

New lands and farming technology raised food output faster than Malthus predicted.

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Question 26

Economic Growth and Development

Human development can be improved if

  1. A.banks give more loans to businessmen.
  2. B.large family sizes are encouraged.
  3. C.general education and training is encouraged.
  4. D.it is handled by the private sector only.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (general education and training is encouraged.)

Explanation

Education and training improve people's skills and well-being.

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Question 27

Financial Institutions

The use of interest rates to control money supply is a

  1. A.control policy.
  2. B.monetary policy.
  3. C.developmental policy.
  4. D.fiscal policy.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (monetary policy.)

Explanation

Using interest rates and money supply is monetary policy.

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Question 28

Agriculture

Agricultural productivity may be increased if

  1. A.educational institutions are established in rural areas.
  2. B.commercial banks are established in rural areas.
  3. C.more infrastructural facilities are provided in rural areas.
  4. D.labour intensive method of agriculture is encouraged.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (more infrastructural facilities are provided in rural areas.)

Explanation

Roads, storage and power help farmers produce and market more.

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Question 29

Industrialisation

A country is described as industrialized if

  1. A.the contributions of industries to national income is high.
  2. B.traditional and modern sectors coexist.
  3. C.the country adopts import promotion strategy.
  4. D.primary industries dominate the economy.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (the contributions of industries to national income is high.)

Explanation

An industrialised country gets a large share of its income from industry.

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Question 31

National Income

The total value of goods and services produced within the borders of a country is

  1. A.net national product.
  2. B.net domestic product.
  3. C.gross domestic product.
  4. D.gross national product.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (gross domestic product.)

Explanation

GDP measures output produced within a country's borders.

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Question 32

National Income

Which of the following items is not considered as a transfer payment?

  1. A.Pension pay
  2. B.Government subsidy
  3. C.Students' grant
  4. D.Doctor's salary
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Doctor's salary)

Explanation

A salary is payment for work done, so it is not a transfer payment.

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Question 33

National Income

Which of the following factors will not underestimate the national income?

  1. A.Rapid decrease in prices
  2. B.Increased subsistence production
  3. C.Practice of specialization of labour
  4. D.Increase in value of services not paid for
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Practice of specialization of labour)

Explanation

With specialisation more output is sold and recorded, so it does not lead to underestimation.

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Question 34

Money and Inflation

Which of the following is true of the value of money? It

  1. A.is positively related to the price level.
  2. B.depends on the value people attach to it.
  3. C.is determined by the government.
  4. D.is inversely related to the price level.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (is inversely related to the price level.)

Explanation

When prices rise, money buys less, so the value of money moves opposite to the price level.

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Question 35

Money and Inflation

The motive for holding money to meet unforeseen events is termed

  1. A.precautionary demand.
  2. B.transactions demand.
  3. C.liquidity demand.
  4. D.speculative demand.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (precautionary demand.)

Explanation

Money kept for emergencies is the precautionary motive.

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Question 36

Money and Inflation

An increase in the prices of factor inputs may result in

  1. A.demand-pull inflation.
  2. B.stagflation.
  3. C.open inflation.
  4. D.cost-push inflation.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (cost-push inflation.)

Explanation

Higher input costs push up prices: cost-push inflation.

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Question 37

Financial Institutions

Insurance companies are similar to commercial banks in that they

  1. A.compensate their customers for losses.
  2. B.acts as lender of last resort.
  3. C.help in maintaining monetary stability in a nation.
  4. D.help in mobilizing savings for investment.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (help in mobilizing savings for investment.)

Explanation

Both collect funds (deposits or premiums) and invest them.

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Question 38

Financial Institutions

What happens when the central bank increases the bank rate?

  1. A.Amount of borrowing increases
  2. B.Amount of borrowing decreases
  3. C.Supply of money increases
  4. D.Commercial banks are not affected
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Amount of borrowing decreases)

Explanation

A higher bank rate makes loans dearer, so less is borrowed.

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Question 39

Public Finance

Citizens are protected from government's arbitrariness in taxation by the canon of

  1. A.elasticity.
  2. B.flexibility.
  3. C.economy.
  4. D.certainty.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (certainty.)

Explanation

Certainty means the amount, time and manner of payment are clearly known, so officials cannot tax arbitrarily.

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Question 40

Public Finance

In a period of unemployment and falling prices, government should adopt a

  1. A.zero-based budget.
  2. B.budget deficit.
  3. C.balanced budget.
  4. D.surplus budget.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (budget deficit.)

Explanation

A deficit budget adds spending to the economy and raises demand and employment.

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Question 41

Economic Growth and Development

In most developing countries, a large percentage of the labour force is engaged in

  1. A.trading.
  2. B.mining.
  3. C.agriculture.
  4. D.manufacturing.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (agriculture.)

Explanation

Agriculture employs most workers in developing countries.

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Question 42

Economic Growth and Development

In most underdeveloped countries, development plans do not achieve their objectives due to

  1. A.poor coordination between local and national governments.
  2. B.exportation of more primary products.
  3. C.lack of educational institutions in those countries.
  4. D.urban-rural migration of citizens.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (poor coordination between local and national governments.)

Explanation

Plans fail when different levels of government do not work together.

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Question 43

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

Balance of trade involves exchange of

  1. A.goods only.
  2. B.services only.
  3. C.goods and services.
  4. D.goods and capital.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (goods only.)

Explanation

The balance of trade covers visible items (goods) only.

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Question 45

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

Devaluation of currency may not correct a balance of payments deficit if the demand for export is

  1. A.perfectly inelastic.
  2. B.perfectly elastic.
  3. C.fairly elastic.
  4. D.unitary elastic.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (perfectly inelastic.)

Explanation

If export demand does not respond to the lower price, export earnings fall and the deficit is not corrected.

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Question 46

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

One measure for financing a country's balance of payments deficit is through

  1. A.export diversification.
  2. B.import substitution.
  3. C.short-term borrowing from IMF.
  4. D.internal borrowing from commercial banks.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (short-term borrowing from IMF.)

Explanation

The IMF lends to members to cover temporary deficits.

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Question 47

International Economic Organisations

The major achievement of the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) is that it has

  1. A.made capital more mobile.
  2. B.made possible the use of common currency.
  3. C.increased members allegiance to former colonial masters.
  4. D.widened the market for goods produced.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (widened the market for goods produced.)

Explanation

Removing trade barriers gives members' producers a larger regional market.

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Question 48

International Economic Organisations

Which of the following institutions is concerned with expanding developing countries' commodity trade?

  1. A.World Trade Organization (WTO)
  2. B.United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
  3. C.Economic Commission for Africa (ECA)
  4. D.African Development Bank (AfDB)
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD))

Explanation

UNCTAD works to improve trade opportunities for developing countries.

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Question 49

Theory of Production

Exploitation of forest resources becomes a major problem when

  1. A.communities fight over ownership.
  2. B.they are not renewed.
  3. C.they are neglected.
  4. D.the supply is fixed in the long-run.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (they are not renewed.)

Explanation

Cutting trees without replanting destroys the forest.

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Question 50

Natural Resources and Petroleum

Natural resources that are renewable are found in the

  1. A.mining sector.
  2. B.traditional sector.
  3. C.agricultural sector.
  4. D.secondary sector.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (agricultural sector.)

Explanation

Crops, livestock, forests and fish can be renewed; minerals in the mining sector cannot.

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Theory question 101

Market Structures

The diagram below represents the equilibrium position of a firm in a perfectly competitive industry. Study it carefully answer the questions that follow.
(a)(i) At what level of output and price is the firm in equilibrium? (ii) Calculate the firm's profit in equilibrium. (iii) What type of profit is it? Explain your answer.
(b) Why is the average revenue (AR) function horizontal?
(c) State any two ways in which marginal cost (MC) and average total cost (ATC) are related.

Diagram for this question
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Model answer

(a)(i) Output 50 kg at a price of $20, where MC = MR with MC rising.
(ii) TR = 20 × 50 = $1,000; ATC at 50 kg = $12, so TC = 12 × 50 = $600; profit = 1,000 − 600 = $400 (or (20 − 12) × 50).
(iii) Supernormal (abnormal) profit, because price (AR) is greater than average total cost at the equilibrium output.
(b) The firm is a price taker: it can sell any quantity at the market price, so AR (= price = MR) is constant and the AR line is horizontal.
(c) Any two: when MC is below ATC, ATC is falling; when MC is above ATC, ATC is rising; MC cuts ATC at the lowest point of ATC (MC = ATC at minimum ATC); both are U-shaped.

Explanation

Equilibrium is where MC = MR; profit is (AR − ATC) × output.

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Theory question 102

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

The extract from a country's balance of payment account is shown below.
ITEM | IMPORT ($ million) | EXPORT ($ million)
Agricultural products | --- | 200
Mineral products | --- | 300
Consumer goods | 250 | ---
Capital goods | 400 | ---
Insurance | 50 | 25
Banking | 75 | 30
Transportation | 85 | 25
Loans | 150 | 60
Using the table above, calculate the: (a) balance of trade; (b) invisible trade balance; (c) balance on current account.

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Model answer

(a) Visible exports = 200 + 300 = $500 m; visible imports = 250 + 400 = $650 m; balance of trade = 500 − 650 = −$150 m (deficit)
(b) Invisible exports (insurance, banking, transport) = 25 + 30 + 25 = $80 m; invisible imports = 50 + 75 + 85 = $210 m; invisible balance = 80 − 210 = −$130 m
(c) Current account = balance of trade + invisible balance = −150 + (−130) = −$280 m (deficit). Loans are capital account items, so they are left out.

Explanation

Loans are capital flows, not current account items.

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Theory question 103

Distributive Trade

(a)(i) Define distribution of goods. (ii) Illustrate the normal chain of distribution of goods.
(b) Describe a consumer's cooperative society.
(c) Outline any four roles performed by a consumers' cooperative society.

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Model answer

(a)(i) Distribution is the process of moving goods from producers to final consumers, including wholesaling, retailing, transport, storage and advertising.
(ii) Producer/manufacturer → wholesaler → retailer → consumer.
(b) A consumers' co-operative society is an association of consumers who contribute capital to buy goods in bulk directly from producers or wholesalers and sell them to members (and others) at fair prices; profits are shared as dividends according to members' purchases; it is run democratically (one member, one vote).
(c) Any four: buys in bulk and sells to members at low prices; eliminates middlemen; protects members from exploitation and hoarding; provides genuine/quality goods; pays dividends to members; educates members on thrift and consumer matters; stabilises prices.

Explanation

Consumers' co-operatives cut out middlemen to lower prices for members.

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Theory question 104

Theory of Production

(a) What is an industry?
(b) Explain the following: (i) division of labour (ii) economies of scale.
(c) Outline any four internal economies of scale.

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Model answer

(a) An industry is a group of firms producing the same or similar products.
(b)(i) Division of labour: breaking a production process into separate tasks, each done by a different worker who specialises in it.
(ii) Economies of scale: the cost advantages (fall in average cost) a firm or industry enjoys as its scale of production increases.
(c) Any four: technical; managerial; financial; marketing (bulk buying and selling); risk-bearing; research and development; welfare economies.

Explanation

Internal economies arise from the firm's own growth.

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Theory question 105

Business Organisations

(a) Define a joint venture.
(b) Identify any three merits of a private company over a partnership.
(c) State any three sources of finance to a public enterprise.

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Model answer

(a) A joint venture is a business owned and managed jointly by two or more parties (e.g. government and foreign or local private firms), who share the capital, risks and profits.
(b) Any three: limited liability of shareholders; separate legal entity and continuity (not ended by death of a member); can have more members (up to 50) and raise more capital; shares can be transferred with consent; professional management; easier access to bank loans.
(c) Any three: government grants and subsidies; government loans; loans from banks and international institutions; revenue from sales of its goods and services; issue of bonds/stocks; foreign aid; retained profits.

Explanation

A private company has limited liability while most partners do not.

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Theory question 106

Elasticity

(a) Distinguish between the following pairs of concepts: (i) elastic demand and inelastic demand; (ii) income elasticity of demand and cross elasticity of demand.
(b) Using diagrams, explain how an increase in price will affect the total revenue of a producer if demand for his product is: (i) price elastic; (ii) price inelastic.

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Model answer

(a)(i) Elastic demand: a change in price causes a more than proportionate change in quantity demanded (coefficient > 1). Inelastic demand: a change in price causes a less than proportionate change in quantity demanded (coefficient < 1).
(ii) Income elasticity: responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in consumers' income (% change in Qd ÷ % change in income). Cross elasticity: responsiveness of quantity demanded of one good to a change in the price of another good (% change in Qd of X ÷ % change in price of Y).
(b)(i) Elastic demand (flat curve): a price rise causes a larger proportionate fall in quantity, so total revenue falls; show the revenue rectangles before and after.
(ii) Inelastic demand (steep curve): a price rise causes a smaller proportionate fall in quantity, so total revenue rises; show the rectangles.

Explanation

Total revenue = price × quantity; compare the two rectangles.

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Theory question 107

Population

(a) Distinguish between: (i) a growing population and a declining population; (ii) overpopulation and under population.
(b) Explain any four disadvantages of a rapidly growing population in an economy.

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Model answer

(a)(i) A growing population is one whose size increases over time because births (and immigration) exceed deaths (and emigration); a declining population is one whose size falls because deaths and emigration exceed births and immigration.
(ii) Overpopulation: the population is too large for the available resources, so income per head is below the maximum possible. Under-population: the population is too small to make full use of the resources, so income per head is also below the maximum.
(b) Any four: high dependency ratio; unemployment; pressure on social amenities (schools, hospitals, housing); low savings and investment; food shortages; low per capita income; environmental damage; congestion and slums; rural-urban migration and crime.

Explanation

Over- and under-population are measured against the optimum.

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Theory question 108

Public Finance

(a) What is public debt?
(b) Outline any three reasons why countries borrow.
(c) Highlight any three effects of a huge national debt on the economy of a country.

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Model answer

(a) Public debt is the total amount of money owed by a government to lenders within the country (internal debt) and outside (external debt).
(b) Any three: to finance a budget deficit; to finance development projects/infrastructure; to correct balance of payments deficit; to meet emergencies (war, disasters); to control inflation (borrowing from the public); to bridge foreign exchange gaps; to repay old debts.
(c) Any three: heavy debt-servicing burden reduces money for development; higher taxes; capital flight and lower investment; loss of sovereignty to creditors' conditions; inflation if financed by money creation; worsens balance of payments; burden passed to future generations.

Explanation

Debt helps development if used well, but servicing can crowd out other spending.

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