WAEC Economics 2012 past questions and answers

61 questions. Try each one, then open the answer to check yourself and read the explanation.

Question 1

Basic Concepts

Which of the following problems arises where there are more than one technically possible methods of production?

  1. A.Where to produce
  2. B.For whom to produce
  3. C.How to produce
  4. D.What to produce
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (How to produce)

Explanation

Choosing among different methods (e.g. labour- or capital-intensive) is the problem of how to produce.

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Question 2

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

Visible balance is also known as

  1. A.terms of trade.
  2. B.balance of payments.
  3. C.balance of trade.
  4. D.capital balance.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (balance of trade.)

Explanation

The visible balance compares visible exports and imports, which is the balance of trade.

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Question 3

Theory of Demand

A shift in the demand curve indicates

  1. A.exceptional demand.
  2. B.change in demand.
  3. C.change in quantity demanded.
  4. D.elasticity of demand.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (change in demand.)

Explanation

A shift of the whole curve is a change (increase or decrease) in demand.

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Question 4

Elasticity

If a 6% decrease in price results in more than 6% decrease in quantity supplied, supply can be regarded as

  1. A.elastic.
  2. B.unitary elastic.
  3. C.perfectly inelastic.
  4. D.perfectly elastic.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (elastic.)

Explanation

Quantity changes by a larger percentage than price, so the coefficient is above 1: elastic.

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Question 5

Theory of Consumer Behaviour

A condition for consumer utility maximization is

  1. A.equality of the ratio of marginal utilities and the ratio of prices.
  2. B.equality of the ratio of average utilities and the ratio of prices.
  3. C.equality of the marginal utility to total utility ratio for both commodities.
  4. D.total utility and marginal utility must be zero.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (equality of the ratio of marginal utilities and the ratio of prices.)

Explanation

The consumer is in equilibrium when MUA/MUB = PA/PB.

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Question 6

Tools of Economic Analysis

Which of the following best describes the mode? The

  1. A.observation with the highest frequency
  2. B.average of two middle numbers
  3. C.item that occupies the middle position
  4. D.difference of two extreme values
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (observation with the highest frequency)

Explanation

The mode is the value that occurs most often.

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Question 7

Elasticity

Where a commodity takes an insignificant proportion of the consumer's income, demand for it will be

  1. A.unitary elastic.
  2. B.price inelastic.
  3. C.fairly elastic.
  4. D.income inelastic.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (price inelastic.)

Explanation

When a good costs very little of one's income (e.g. salt, matches), price changes hardly affect how much is bought.

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Question 8

Theory of Demand

A demand schedule shows the quantities of goods that are

  1. A.bought at given prices at a time.
  2. B.supplied at given prices at a time.
  3. C.produced at given prices at a time.
  4. D.reserved for future consumption.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (bought at given prices at a time.)

Explanation

A demand schedule is a table of quantities buyers will purchase at various prices at a given time.

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Question 9

Theory of Demand

The demand curve for a commodity is downward sloping because the consumer will pay

  1. A.less as the marginal utility falls.
  2. B.more as the marginal utility falls.
  3. C.less as the total utility falls.
  4. D.more as the average utility falls.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (less as the marginal utility falls.)

Explanation

Each extra unit gives less satisfaction, so the consumer will buy more only at a lower price.

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Question 10

Theory of Demand

A decrease in the demand for a product X resulted in a decrease in the demand for another product Y. The demand for X and Y is

  1. A.derived.
  2. B.composite.
  3. C.joint.
  4. D.competitive.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (joint.)

Explanation

The demand for both falls together because they are used together: joint (complementary) demand.

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Question 11

Price Determination

Any price below the equilibrium price will lead to

  1. A.increase in supply.
  2. B.excess demand.
  3. C.equality of demand and supply.
  4. D.decrease in demand.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (excess demand.)

Explanation

Below equilibrium, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied: excess demand (shortage).

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Question 12

Economic Systems

The allocation of goods and services in a free market economy is performed by

  1. A.the price system.
  2. B.the banking system.
  3. C.the central planning body.
  4. D.government budgets.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (the price system.)

Explanation

In a free market, prices determined by demand and supply allocate resources.

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Question 13

Theory of Demand

Given the demand function Qd = 20 − (1/2)P. What is Qd when P is $12?

  1. A.6 units
  2. B.10 units
  3. C.12 units
  4. D.14 units
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (14 units)

Explanation

Qd = 20 − ½(12) = 20 − 6 = 14 units.

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Question 14

Theory of Consumer Behaviour

If a particular consumer derives total utility of 22 utils having consumed 4 units of a given product, his average utility will be

  1. A.88 utils.
  2. B.18 utils.
  3. C.5.5 utils.
  4. D.3.5 utils.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (5.5 utils.)

Explanation

Average utility = total utility ÷ units = 22 ÷ 4 = 5.5 utils.

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Question 15

Theory of Consumer Behaviour

The law of diminishing marginal utility applies to a

  1. A.firm which minimizes cost.
  2. B.consumer who maximizes satisfaction.
  3. C.producer who maximizes marginal product.
  4. D.consumer who minimizes total utility.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (consumer who maximizes satisfaction.)

Explanation

The law concerns a consumer's satisfaction from successive units of a good.

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Question 16

Theory of Production

Why is the law of diminishing returns a short run phenomenon?

  1. A.All inputs are fixed
  2. B.All inputs are variable
  3. C.Some outputs are variable
  4. D.Some inputs are variable
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Some inputs are variable)

Explanation

In the short run some inputs can be varied while others stay fixed; adding variable inputs to fixed ones causes diminishing returns.

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Question 17

Population

Which of the following is capable of increasing the population of a country?

  1. A.Decrease in death rate
  2. B.Increase in death rate
  3. C.Poor medical facilities
  4. D.Decrease in birth rate
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Decrease in death rate)

Explanation

Fewer deaths with the same births means population grows.

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Question 18

Theory of Costs and Revenue

In the firm's production process, marginal cost

  1. A.falls continuously throughout.
  2. B.falls and later rises.
  3. C.remains unchanged throughout.
  4. D.rises and later falls.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (falls and later rises.)

Explanation

MC first falls (increasing returns) and then rises (diminishing returns), giving a U shape.

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Question 19

Market Structures

If a firm's price is less than average cost but more than average variable cost, the firm is covering

  1. A.all of its fixed cost and variable cost.
  2. B.all of its fixed cost and part of variable cost.
  3. C.all of its variable cost and part of fixed cost.
  4. D.part of its fixed cost and part of variable cost.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (all of its variable cost and part of fixed cost.)

Explanation

Price above AVC pays all variable costs, and what is left over pays only part of the fixed cost because price is below AC.

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Question 20

Business Organisations

An arrangement in which the debts of a company can only be paid from its own assets implies

  1. A.unlimited liability.
  2. B.transferred liability.
  3. C.limited liability.
  4. D.capital liability.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (limited liability.)

Explanation

With limited liability shareholders' private property cannot be used to pay the company's debts.

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Question 21

Business Organisations

One reason why small scale businesses are very common in West Africa is that

  1. A.they can easily float shares.
  2. B.their management boards are easily formed.
  3. C.their initial capital is easy to raise.
  4. D.their dividend payments are very regular.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (their initial capital is easy to raise.)

Explanation

Little capital is needed to start a small business, so many people can set one up.

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Question 22

Business Organisations

A public limited company could finance its operations through

  1. A.government taxes.
  2. B.equity shares.
  3. C.dividend payments.
  4. D.import duties.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (equity shares.)

Explanation

A public company raises capital by selling (equity) shares to the public.

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Question 23

Theory of Production

The factor of production which takes the initiative in combining resources for production is known as

  1. A.capital.
  2. B.land.
  3. C.entrepreneur.
  4. D.labour.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (entrepreneur.)

Explanation

The entrepreneur organises the other factors and bears the risk.

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Question 24

Market Structures

The type of monopoly that develops as a result of granting patent right is known as

  1. A.natural monopoly.
  2. B.state monopoly.
  3. C.legal monopoly.
  4. D.discriminating monopoly.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (legal monopoly.)

Explanation

A patent is a legal right, so the monopoly it creates is a legal monopoly.

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Question 25

Market Structures

Which of the following markets determines its own price or output?

  1. A.Perfect market
  2. B.Common market
  3. C.Monopoly market
  4. D.Commodity market
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Monopoly market)

Explanation

A monopolist is a price maker and can fix either price or output.

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Question 26

Distributive Trade

Which of the following is a function of a retailer?

  1. A.Banking services
  2. B.Hoarding services
  3. C.Storage services
  4. D.Sales services
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Sales services)

Explanation

The retailer's main job is selling goods in small quantities to final consumers.

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Question 27

Population

The difference between the number of immigrants and emigrants is

  1. A.natural growth rate.
  2. B.natural increase.
  3. C.net migration.
  4. D.census.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (net migration.)

Explanation

Net migration = immigrants − emigrants.

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Question 28

Population

All the following are features of optimum population except

  1. A.full employment of available resources.
  2. B.unlimited amount of unexploited resources.
  3. C.maximum per capita production and income.
  4. D.high standard of living.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (unlimited amount of unexploited resources.)

Explanation

At optimum population resources are fully used, so there are not large unexploited resources.

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Question 29

Financial Institutions

The financial institution that specializes in risk spreading is called

  1. A.an investment bank.
  2. B.a development bank.
  3. C.an insurance company.
  4. D.the stock exchange.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (an insurance company.)

Explanation

Insurance pools premiums from many people to share the losses of a few.

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Question 30

Population

The following are means of reducing the population of a country except encouraging

  1. A.emigration.
  2. B.family planning.
  3. C.early marriage.
  4. D.sex education.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (early marriage.)

Explanation

Early marriage lengthens the child-bearing period and increases births.

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Question 31

Agriculture

Which of the following features best describes peasant agriculture in West Africa? It

  1. A.specializes in the production of one crop.
  2. B.involves the use of small farm holdings.
  3. C.is a capital-intensive system of farming.
  4. D.is mostly associated with tree crops.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (involves the use of small farm holdings.)

Explanation

Peasant farmers work small, scattered plots with simple tools and family labour.

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Question 32

Industrialisation

One of the problems facing industrial development in West African countries is

  1. A.inadequate large market
  2. B.inadequate infrastructure.
  3. C.inadequate supply of labour.
  4. D.unavailability of natural resources.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (inadequate infrastructure.)

Explanation

Poor roads, power and water raise costs and hold back industry; labour and natural resources are plentiful.

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Question 33

Industrialisation

In a situation where the finished product of an industry is fragile, bulky and perishable, such an industry should be located close to its

  1. A.raw materials.
  2. B.market.
  3. C.labour supply.
  4. D.power supply.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (market.)

Explanation

Fragile, bulky or perishable products are costly or risky to transport, so firms locate near their buyers.

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Question 34

National Income

If Y = Income, C = Consumption, I = Investment, X = Export and M = Import, then national income is

  1. A.Y = C − I + (x + m).
  2. B.Y = C + I + (x + m).
  3. C.Y = C + I + (x − m).
  4. D.Y = C + I + (m − x).
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Y = C + I + (x − m).)

Explanation

By the expenditure method, Y = C + I + (X − M) (net exports), plus G where government is included.

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Question 35

National Income

The national income is the

  1. A.Gross Domestic Product at market prices.
  2. B.Gross National Product at factor cost.
  3. C.Net National Product at factor cost.
  4. D.Net National Product at market prices.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Net National Product at factor cost.)

Explanation

National income is net national product at factor cost (GNP less depreciation, valued at factor cost).

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Question 36

National Income

When depreciation is deducted from Gross National Product, the result is

  1. A.total national income.
  2. B.gross domestic product.
  3. C.net national product.
  4. D.net domestic product.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (net national product.)

Explanation

GNP − depreciation = NNP.

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Question 37

Money and Inflation

Mr. Okpoti has meat and wants maize, while Mr. Adama has maize and wants meat. A transaction is possible because of

  1. A.joint demand.
  2. B.scale of preference.
  3. C.double coincidence of wants.
  4. D.opportunity cost.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (double coincidence of wants.)

Explanation

Each has what the other wants, so there is a double coincidence of wants and barter can take place.

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Question 39

Money and Inflation

A price index as a statistic, measures

  1. A.how the value of money changes over time.
  2. B.the volume of currency in the economy.
  3. C.the exchange rate of a country's currency.
  4. D.the composition of goods and services.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (how the value of money changes over time.)

Explanation

A price index tracks changes in the general price level, i.e. in the value of money.

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Question 40

Population

The difference between birth rate and death rate is known as

  1. A.demographic transition.
  2. B.natural growth rate.
  3. C.migration rate.
  4. D.fertility rate
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (natural growth rate.)

Explanation

Natural growth rate = birth rate − death rate.

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Question 41

Financial Institutions

In open market operations, what the Central Bank sells or buys are

  1. A.shares.
  2. B.debentures.
  3. C.securities.
  4. D.equities.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (securities.)

Explanation

The central bank buys and sells government securities to change banks' cash and credit.

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Question 42

Agriculture

The following are reasons for the failure of agricultural policies in West Africa except

  1. A.vague policy statements.
  2. B.negation of policies.
  3. C.provision of agro-service stations.
  4. D.provision of obsolete implements.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (provision of agro-service stations.)

Explanation

Agro-service stations help farmers; the other options explain why policies fail.

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Question 43

Public Finance

A situation in which the estimated government revenue is less than the proposed expenditure for a given year can be described as

  1. A.surplus budgeting.
  2. B.supplementary budgeting.
  3. C.balanced budgeting.
  4. D.deficit budgeting.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (deficit budgeting.)

Explanation

Planned spending greater than expected revenue is a deficit budget.

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Question 44

Public Finance

An excise tax is imposed on goods

  1. A.smuggled into the country.
  2. B.manufactured locally.
  3. C.imported into the country.
  4. D.seized by custom officials.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (manufactured locally.)

Explanation

Excise duty is levied on goods produced within the country.

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Question 45

Economic Growth and Development

Which of the following will not retard economic development in West Africa?

  1. A.Dependence on imports
  2. B.Population control
  3. C.High level of illiteracy
  4. D.Low level of savings
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Population control)

Explanation

Controlling population growth helps development; the others hold it back.

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Question 46

International Trade

When there is improvement in a country's terms of trade, it means that the country's

  1. A.exports are cheaper relative to imports.
  2. B.imports are cheaper relative to exports.
  3. C.volume of imports has declined.
  4. D.volume of exports has declined.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (imports are cheaper relative to exports.)

Explanation

An improvement means export prices rise relative to import prices, so imports become cheaper relative to exports.

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Question 47

International Trade

Which of the following is true about import substitution? It

  1. A.helps in increasing exportation.
  2. B.is meant to reduce exportation.
  3. C.enables a country to curtail importation.
  4. D.enables a country to improve on importation.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (enables a country to curtail importation.)

Explanation

Making at home what was imported reduces imports.

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Question 48

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

Balance of payments problem can be corrected through

  1. A.increasing foreign reserves.
  2. B.increasing domestic borrowing.
  3. C.import promotion strategies.
  4. D.export promotion strategies.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (export promotion strategies.)

Explanation

Promoting exports increases foreign earnings and reduces a deficit.

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Question 49

International Trade

One of the reasons why government may erect a trade barrier is to

  1. A.control foreign currencies.
  2. B.protect infant industries.
  3. C.promote importation.
  4. D.diversify the economy.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (protect infant industries.)

Explanation

Tariffs and quotas shield new local industries from foreign competition.

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Question 50

International Economic Organisations

Which of the following is not a function of the West African Development Bank?

  1. A.Promotion of both private and public investments in member states
  2. B.Financing and executing projects in member states
  3. C.Promotion of social development of member states
  4. D.harmonization of oil prices to the advantage of member states
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (harmonization of oil prices to the advantage of member states)

Explanation

Harmonising oil prices is OPEC's work, not a development bank's.

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Theory question 101

Market Structures

The diagram below represents the cost and revenue situation of a firm. Use the information in the diagram to answer the questions that follow.
(a) Why would the firm not produce at (i) Q1; (ii) Q3?
(b) How much profit does the firm make at P2?
(c) If price falls to P1 (i) What quantity would the firm produce? (ii) What type of profit does the firm make? (iii) Explain your answer in c(ii).
(d) In which type of market is the firm operating?

Diagram for this question
Show the model answer
Model answer

(a) At price P2 the profit-maximising output is Q2, where MC = MR2 (point E).
(i) At Q1, MR2 is greater than MC, so producing more units adds to profit; Q1 is not the best output.
(ii) At Q3, MC (point H) is greater than MR2, so the last units add more to cost than to revenue and reduce profit.
(b) Profit = (price − average cost) × quantity = (P2 − AC at Q2) × OQ2 = EB × OQ2, the rectangle between P2 and the AC curve above OQ2: supernormal (abnormal) profit.
(c)(i) Q1, where MC = MR1 (point A).
(ii) Normal profit only.
(iii) At Q1, AR = AC (price equals minimum average cost); normal profit is included in average cost, so there is no supernormal profit.
(d) Perfect competition (AR = MR are horizontal lines: the firm is a price taker).

Explanation

Profit is maximised where MC = MR; profit is the gap between AR and AC times quantity.

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Theory question 102

Public Finance

The tables below show the expected revenues and projected expenditures from the budget of a hypothetical country in 1998. Use the information in the tables to answer the questions that follow.
EXPECTED REVENUE
Item | Amount ($ millions)
Rents, royalties and profits | 75.00
Company income tax | 150.00
Customs and excise duties | 300.20
Personal income tax | 80.00
Fees and specific charges | 60.80
Value added tax | 100.00
PROJECTED EXPENDITURE
Item | Amount ($ millions)
General administration | 220.10
Maintenance of foreign missions | 50.00
Transfer payments | 65.00
Building of schools and hospitals | 200.00
Road construction | 180.90
(a) Calculate the total revenue from (i) direct taxes; (ii) indirect taxes; (iii) non-tax sources.
(b) Determine the total (i) capital expenditure; (ii) recurrent expenditure.
(c) Determine whether the budget is a surplus or deficit.

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Model answer

(a)(i) Direct taxes = company income tax 150.00 + personal income tax 80.00 = $230.00 m
(ii) Indirect taxes = customs and excise 300.20 + VAT 100.00 = $400.20 m
(iii) Non-tax = rents, royalties and profits 75.00 + fees and specific charges 60.80 = $135.80 m
Total revenue = $766.00 m
(b)(i) Capital expenditure = schools and hospitals 200.00 + roads 180.90 = $380.90 m
(ii) Recurrent expenditure = general administration 220.10 + foreign missions 50.00 + transfer payments 65.00 = $335.10 m
Total expenditure = $716.00 m
(c) Revenue (766.00) is greater than expenditure (716.00), so the budget is a surplus of $50.00 m.

Explanation

Capital spending creates lasting assets; recurrent spending is regular running cost.

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Theory question 103

Theory of Demand

Explain how the following factors will affect the demand for a commodity X: (a) a decrease in the price of a complement Y; (b) an increase in consumers' disposable income; (c) a decrease in the supply of a substitute P; (d) an increase in income tax.

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Model answer

(a) Y becomes cheaper, so more Y is bought; since X is used with Y, demand for X increases (curve shifts right).
(b) Higher disposable income raises demand for X if it is a normal good (shift right); if X is inferior, demand falls.
(c) Less supply of P raises its price, so consumers switch to X: demand for X increases.
(d) Higher income tax reduces disposable income, so demand for X (a normal good) decreases (shift left).

Explanation

Each factor shifts the whole demand curve for X.

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Theory question 104

International Trade

(a) State and explain the law of comparative cost advantage.
(b) Give two limitations of the law as a theory of international trade.

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Model answer

(a) The law states that even if one country is more efficient than another in producing all goods, both gain from trade if each specialises in producing the good in which it has the greater relative advantage (lowest opportunity cost) and trades for the other. Explain with an example of two countries and two goods.
(b) Any two: it assumes no transport costs; assumes free trade (ignores tariffs and quotas); assumes perfect mobility of factors within a country and immobility between countries; assumes constant costs (ignores diminishing returns); considers only two countries and two goods; assumes full employment; ignores the need for self-sufficiency in strategic goods.

Explanation

Use opportunity cost to show which country should specialise in which good.

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Theory question 105

Money and Inflation

(a) Define money.
(b) State the three motives for holding money.
(c) Mention two determinants of each of the motives for holding money.

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Model answer

(a) Money is anything that is generally acceptable as a medium of exchange and in settlement of debts.
(b) Transactions motive; precautionary motive; speculative motive.
(c) Transactions: level of income; frequency of payment of income; price level; habits of spending.
Precautionary: level of income; uncertainty about the future (emergencies); availability of credit; age and family size.
Speculative: rate of interest; expectations about future bond prices/interest rates; level of wealth.

Explanation

Two determinants for each of the three motives.

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Theory question 106

Basic Concepts

(a) Distinguish between economic activities and an economic system.
(b) Explain the following terms: (i) production; (ii) distribution; (iii) consumption.

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Model answer

(a) Economic activities are the things people do to earn a living or satisfy wants with scarce resources (production, distribution, consumption). An economic system is the way a society organises its resources and institutions to carry out these activities and decide what, how and for whom to produce (e.g. capitalism, socialism).
(b)(i) Production: the creation of goods and services (utility) to satisfy human wants, including moving them to consumers.
(ii) Distribution: the movement of goods from producers to consumers through wholesalers, retailers, transport, etc. (also the sharing of income among factors).
(iii) Consumption: the using up of goods and services to satisfy wants.

Explanation

Activities are what people do; a system is how society organises them.

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Theory question 107

Elasticity

(a) Define (i) elasticity of demand; (ii) price elasticity of demand.
(b) State any four determinants of price elasticity of demand.
(c) Draw curves illustrating (i) fairly elastic demand; (ii) perfectly inelastic demand.

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Model answer

(a)(i) Elasticity of demand is the degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in any of its determinants (price, income, prices of other goods).
(ii) Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in the good's own price: % change in quantity demanded ÷ % change in price.
(b) Any four: availability of substitutes; nature of the good (necessity or luxury); proportion of income spent on it; number of uses; habit; durability; time period; whether purchase can be postponed.
(c)(i) A relatively flat downward-sloping demand curve (a small price change gives a larger change in quantity).
(ii) A vertical demand curve (quantity does not change whatever the price).

Explanation

Label axes on both sketches.

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Theory question 108

Market Structures

(a) Define market in economics.
(b) State any three features of a monopoly.
(c) Outline any three sources of monopoly power.

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Model answer

(a) A market is any arrangement through which buyers and sellers of a commodity are in contact to exchange it at a price.
(b) Any three: a single seller; no close substitutes; barriers to entry; the firm is a price maker; the firm is the industry; can practise price discrimination; can earn abnormal profit in the long run.
(c) Any three: patents and copyrights; government licence/legislation (statutory monopoly); control of a scarce raw material; large economies of scale (natural monopoly); huge capital requirement; mergers and cartels; exclusive franchise.

Explanation

Sources of monopoly power are the barriers that keep rivals out.

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Theory question 109

Price Determination

(a) With the aid of a diagram, explain a minimum price.
(b) State any five measures by which a minimum price for an agricultural produce can be made effective.

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Model answer

(a) A minimum (floor) price is a price fixed by government above the equilibrium, below which the good may not be sold, usually to protect producers. Diagram: D and S curves crossing at Pe; a horizontal line at Pmin above Pe; quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded, showing a surplus.
(b) Any five: government buys up the surplus (buffer stock); storage facilities for the surplus; export of the surplus; output quotas to restrict production; laws and penalties against selling below the price; subsidies for processing into other products; destroying or giving away surplus as aid; encouraging local consumption.

Explanation

The surplus at the minimum price must be absorbed or controlled.

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Theory question 110

Theory of Supply

(a) What is a supply schedule?
(b) Using an example, show how a market supply schedule of a product is obtained from individual supply schedules.
(c) State three examples of exceptional demand.

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Model answer

(a) A supply schedule is a table showing the quantities of a commodity that a seller (or sellers) is willing and able to offer for sale at various prices at a given time.
(b) Add the quantities supplied by all sellers at each price. Example: at N10, A supplies 20, B 30, C 50 → market supply 100; at N20, A 30, B 40, C 60 → 130; at N30, A 40, B 50, C 70 → 160.
(c) Any three: Giffen goods; goods of ostentation (prestige/Veblen goods); goods whose price is expected to rise further; goods bought in ignorance (price taken as a sign of quality); necessities in an emergency.

Explanation

Market supply is the horizontal sum of individual supplies at each price.

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Theory question 111

Theory of Demand

Distinguish between the following: (a) wants and effective demand; (b) demand schedule and demand curve; (c) individual demand and market demand; (d) change in demand and change in quantity demanded.

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Model answer

(a) Wants are desires for goods and services, not necessarily backed by money; effective demand is a want backed by willingness and ability to pay at a given price.
(b) A demand schedule is a table of quantities demanded at different prices; a demand curve is the graph of that schedule.
(c) Individual demand is the quantity one consumer buys at various prices; market demand is the total of all individual demands at each price.
(d) A change in demand is caused by factors other than the good's own price and shifts the whole curve; a change in quantity demanded is caused by a change in the good's own price and is a movement along the same curve.

Explanation

Give both sides of each pair.

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Theory question 112

National Income

(a) Describe the output method of measuring the gross domestic product of a country.
(b) How is the net national product at factor cost obtained from gross domestic product?
(c) State two problems associated with the output method.

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Model answer

(a) The output (product) method adds up the money value of all final goods and services produced by all sectors (agriculture, mining, manufacturing, services) in the country in a year; to avoid double counting, only final goods or value added at each stage are counted.
(b) GDP at market prices + net factor income from abroad = GNP at market prices; − depreciation = NNP at market prices; − indirect taxes + subsidies = NNP at factor cost (national income).
(c) Any two: double counting; difficulty of valuing subsistence output not sold; inadequate and unreliable data; difficulty in deciding which goods are final; changes in prices; illiteracy of producers who keep no records.

Explanation

Show the adjustments step by step from GDP to NNP at factor cost.

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