WAEC Economics 2023 past questions and answers

57 questions. Try each one, then open the answer to check yourself and read the explanation.

Question 1

Basic Concepts

The study of economics is mainly concerned with how to

  1. A.rank individuals' wants given the abundant resources.
  2. B.make choice when resources are inadequate.
  3. C.satisfy every member of all societies.
  4. D.produce all the goods needed by everyone.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (make choice when resources are inadequate.)

Explanation

Economics studies how people choose when resources are too few for all their wants.

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Question 2

Theory of Production

Warehousing is an economic activity that falls under

  1. A.tertiary production.
  2. B.intermediate production.
  3. C.secondary production.
  4. D.primary production.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (tertiary production.)

Explanation

Warehousing is a commercial service, so it is tertiary production.

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Question 3

Theory of Production

Which of the following items is not classified as working capital?

  1. A.Equipment
  2. B.Fuel
  3. C.money to pay wages
  4. D.Semi-finished goods
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Equipment)

Explanation

Equipment is used again and again, so it is fixed capital; the others are working (circulating) capital.

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Question 4

Economic Systems

An economic system is mainly concerned with

  1. A.handling situations of abundant resources.
  2. B.studying the relationship between ends and means.
  3. C.the establishment of economic laws.
  4. D.the allocation of scarce resources between alternative ends.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (the allocation of scarce resources between alternative ends.)

Explanation

Every economic system decides how scarce resources are shared among competing uses.

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Question 5

Tools of Economic Analysis

The marks obtained by 9 students in a class test are recorded below: 9, 8, 7, 5, 7, 6, 8, 9, and 7. What is the median mark?

  1. A.7
  2. B.7.5
  3. C.8
  4. D.8.5
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (7)

Explanation

In order: 5, 6, 7, 7, 7, 8, 8, 9, 9; the 5th value is 7.

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Question 6

Theory of Demand

The demand for a factor input as a result of the demand for its output is known as

  1. A.complementary demand.
  2. B.competitive demand.
  3. C.derived demand.
  4. D.market demand.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (derived demand.)

Explanation

Factors are demanded for the goods they help produce.

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Question 7

Elasticity

If the demand for a commodity remains constant as price increases, the commodity is said to be

  1. A.price elastic.
  2. B.unit price elastic.
  3. C.price inelastic.
  4. D.perfectly price inelastic.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (perfectly price inelastic.)

Explanation

If quantity does not change at all when price changes, demand is perfectly inelastic.

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Question 8

Public Finance

When more of the tax on a product is borne by the buyer than the seller, the commodity involved has

  1. A.elastic demand.
  2. B.fairly inelastic demand.
  3. C.perfectly elastic demand.
  4. D.perfectly inelastic demand.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (fairly inelastic demand.)

Explanation

Buyers who keep buying despite the higher price carry most of the tax, which happens when demand is fairly inelastic.

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Question 9

Elasticity

A fall in the price of a normal commodity which has elastic demand will result in

  1. A.a fall in quantity demanded.
  2. B.an increase in revenue.
  3. C.a fall in demand.
  4. D.a decrease in revenue.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (an increase in revenue.)

Explanation

Quantity rises by a larger percentage than price falls, so revenue rises.

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Question 10

Theory of Supply

The supply of light could be met using a candle, lantern and gas lamp. This is an example of a

  1. A.complementary supply.
  2. B.joint supply.
  3. C.composite supply.
  4. D.abnormal supply.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (composite supply.)

Explanation

When one need (light) can be supplied from several different sources, supply is composite.

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Question 11

Theory of Supply

Petrol and kerosene are jointly obtained from crude oil. If the supply of petrol increases, the

  1. A.supply of kerosene will fall.
  2. B.cost of crude oil production has increased.
  3. C.supply of kerosene will rise.
  4. D.supply of kerosene will remain unchanged.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (supply of kerosene will rise.)

Explanation

Refining more crude for petrol also produces more kerosene.

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Question 12

Theory of Supply

If the government stops subsidy on cocoa production, the supply curve of cocoa will

  1. A.shift to the right.
  2. B.become vertical.
  3. C.shift to the left.
  4. D.remain unchanged.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (shift to the left.)

Explanation

Removing a subsidy raises costs, so supply falls.

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Question 13

Theory of Consumer Behaviour

When the marginal utility from the consumption of commodity X (MUx) is greater than the price of commodity X (Px), a rational consumer should

  1. A.consume more of commodity X.
  2. B.reduce consumption of commodity X.
  3. C.consume the same quantity of commodity X.
  4. D.strive to remain in disequilibrium.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (consume more of commodity X.)

Explanation

Each extra unit is worth more than it costs, so buying more raises satisfaction until MU = P.

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Question 14

Price Determination

When the demand for a commodity increases while supply remains unchanged, the equilibrium price and quantity will

  1. A.remain constant.
  2. B.decrease.
  3. C.increase.
  4. D.turn negative.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (increase.)

Explanation

Demand shifts right along the same supply curve: price and quantity both rise.

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Question 15

Price Determination

The fixing if maximum prices by government is mainly on

  1. A.inferior goods.
  2. B.luxury goods.
  3. C.imported capital goods.
  4. D.selected essential goods.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (selected essential goods.)

Explanation

Price ceilings protect consumers of essential goods.

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Question 16

Theory of Production

At what point on the total product curve shown below will marginal product be negative?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.P
  2. B.Q
  3. C.R
  4. D.S
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (S)

Explanation

After the peak R, total product falls, so marginal product is negative at S.

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Question 17

Theory of Production

A small scale firm located within an industrial estate will enjoy

  1. A.government protection and funding.
  2. B.technological economies of scale.
  3. C.external economies of scale.
  4. D.financial economies of scale.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (external economies of scale.)

Explanation

Shared roads, power and services in an estate are external economies.

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Question 18

Theory of Costs and Revenue

The total fixed cost curve is

  1. A.vertical.
  2. B.horizontal.
  3. C.downward sloping.
  4. D.upward sloping.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (horizontal.)

Explanation

Total fixed cost is the same at every output.

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Question 19

Theory of Costs and Revenue

If a firm retrenches some of its factory workers, its

  1. A.fixed cost is likely to increase.
  2. B.marginal cost may increase.
  3. C.average fixed cost may increase.
  4. D.variable cost will decline.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (variable cost will decline.)

Explanation

Wages of production workers are variable costs.

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Question 20

Market Structures

A monopolist may enjoy abnormal profit only if its

  1. A.marginal cost exceeds marginal revenue.
  2. B.demand curve is perfectly elastic.
  3. C.price exceeds average total cost.
  4. D.expenditure on advertisement increases.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (price exceeds average total cost.)

Explanation

Abnormal profit exists when price (AR) is above average total cost.

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Question 21

Market Structures

The average revenue curve of a firm in a perfect market is the same as the

  1. A.supply curve of the firm.
  2. B.demand curve of the firm.
  3. C.total revenue curve of the firm.
  4. D.average cost curve of the firm.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (demand curve of the firm.)

Explanation

AR shows the price at each quantity, which is the firm's demand curve.

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Question 22

Business Organisations

Resources are pooled for the mutual benefits of its members mainly in a

  1. A.joint stock company.
  2. B.partnership.
  3. C.private company.
  4. D.cooperative society.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (cooperative society.)

Explanation

Co-operatives pool members' resources for their common benefit.

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Question 23

Business Organisations

A joint stock company enjoys perpetual existence because

  1. A.it is formed by a minimum of seven members.
  2. B.it is a corporate entity.
  3. C.its shares are easily transferable.
  4. D.there is a higher degree of specialization.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (it is a corporate entity.)

Explanation

As a separate legal person, the company continues whatever happens to its members.

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Question 24

Distributive Trade

Consumers have access to a variety of goods through the activities of the

  1. A.advertising agencies.
  2. B.wholesalers.
  3. C.retailers.
  4. D.mass media.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (retailers.)

Explanation

Retailers stock many kinds of goods near consumers.

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Question 25

Population

The rate of growth of population is

  1. A.the difference between birth rate and death rate.
  2. B.birth rate less death rate plus net migration.
  3. C.initial population plus number of births and net migration.
  4. D.the number of immigrants plus number of births.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (birth rate less death rate plus net migration.)

Explanation

Growth includes natural increase and net migration.

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Question 26

Population

The Malthusian theory of population is best illustrated when

  1. A.both population and food supply increase at the same rate.
  2. B.population increases much faster than food supply.
  3. C.the size of the population and available resources are equal.
  4. D.food supply increases much faster than population growth.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (population increases much faster than food supply.)

Explanation

Malthus said population grows faster (geometrically) than food (arithmetically).

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Question 27

Population

The dependency ratio of a country is the

  1. A.total active population who depend on government for survival.
  2. B.number of children who depend on their parents for survival.
  3. C.children and aged who rely on the active population for support.
  4. D.people who are cared for by their extended families.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (children and aged who rely on the active population for support.)

Explanation

The dependency ratio compares the young and old with the working population that supports them.

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Question 28

Labour Market

When job vacancies are publicized, the government is mainly trying to solve the problem of

  1. A.residual unemployment.
  2. B.frictional unemployment.
  3. C.technological unemployment.
  4. D.cyclical unemployment.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (frictional unemployment.)

Explanation

Better information about vacancies shortens job searches.

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Question 29

Agriculture

Many workers are employed in the agricultural sector of developing countries because

  1. A.they practice mechanized system of farming.
  2. B.labour intensive method is mostly adopted.
  3. C.wages in the sector is high.
  4. D.abnormal profits are made.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (labour intensive method is mostly adopted.)

Explanation

Farming with simple tools needs many hands.

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Question 30

Industrialisation

Industries are sometimes located in areas which are not profitable so as to

  1. A.encourage rural-urban migration.
  2. B.be able to reap internal economies of scale.
  3. C.be able to even-out development.
  4. D.bring about external economies of scale.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (be able to even-out development.)

Explanation

Government sites some industries to spread development across regions.

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Question 31

Industrialisation

One factor that may not promote industrial development is

  1. A.granting old firms tax exemptions.
  2. B.local firms entering into partnerships with foreign firms.
  3. C.setting up industrial estates with modern amenities.
  4. D.granting capital to firms at reasonable interest rates.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (granting old firms tax exemptions.)

Explanation

Tax breaks normally help new (infant) firms; giving them to long-established firms does little for industrial growth.

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Question 33

National Income

To overcome the problem of double counting under the expenditure approach,

  1. A.value added method is used.
  2. B.only spending on final goods are considered.
  3. C.proper accounting standards must be used.
  4. D.spending on intermediate goods and inputs are considered.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (only spending on final goods are considered.)

Explanation

Counting only final spending avoids counting inputs twice.

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Question 34

National Income

The Net National Product (NNP) of a country is $50m while the depreciation allowance is $10m. The Gross National Product (GNP) is

  1. A.$30m.
  2. B.$40m.
  3. C.$60m.
  4. D.$500m.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C ($60m.)

Explanation

GNP = NNP + depreciation = 50 + 10 = $60m.

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Question 35

Money and Inflation

The price level and the value of money are

  1. A.inversely related.
  2. B.directly related.
  3. C.not related.
  4. D.positively related.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (inversely related.)

Explanation

When prices rise, money buys less.

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Question 36

Money and Inflation

Money is able to function more as a medium of exchange when

  1. A.more people engage in subsistence production.
  2. B.there is a fall in production.
  3. C.there is specialization of labour.
  4. D.individuals and nations are self-sufficient.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (there is specialization of labour.)

Explanation

Specialised workers must exchange their output for what they need, using money.

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Question 37

Money and Inflation

An indication that there is inflation in a country is that

  1. A.there is a decrease in the demand for goods and services.
  2. B.there are too many goods in circulation.
  3. C.the same amount of money buys lower quantity of goods.
  4. D.people prefer to lend than to borrow.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (the same amount of money buys lower quantity of goods.)

Explanation

Inflation reduces what a given sum of money can buy.

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Question 38

Money and Inflation

The most liquid asset among the following is

  1. A.shares.
  2. B.bonds.
  3. C.cash.
  4. D.cheque.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (cash.)

Explanation

Cash is already money and needs no conversion.

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Question 39

Financial Institutions

Commercial banks help in economic development mainly by

  1. A.acting as intermediaries between lenders and borrowers.
  2. B.giving financial advice to the government.
  3. C.acting as trustees and executors of wills.
  4. D.serving as custodians of valuables.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (acting as intermediaries between lenders and borrowers.)

Explanation

Banks channel savings into loans for investment.

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Question 40

Public Finance

Taxes levied on goods and services by governments are called

  1. A.direct taxes.
  2. B.corporate taxes.
  3. C.indirect taxes.
  4. D.poll taxes.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (indirect taxes.)

Explanation

Taxes on goods and services are indirect taxes.

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Question 41

Public Finance

Use the diagram below to answer the question. The curve labelled W shows the

Diagram for this question
  1. A.proportional tax.
  2. B.progressive tax.
  3. C.specific tax.
  4. D.regressive tax.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (progressive tax.)

Explanation

The tax rate on W rises as income rises: a progressive tax.

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Question 42

Public Finance

An example of government's recurrent expenditure is

  1. A.the cost of building a school.
  2. B.paying salaries of workers.
  3. C.purchase of new vehicles.
  4. D.electrification projects in rural areas.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (paying salaries of workers.)

Explanation

Salaries are paid regularly every year.

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Question 43

Economic Growth and Development

A country is described as developing if

  1. A.the population is decreasing.
  2. B.there is low labour supply.
  3. C.the contribution of tertiary sector to national income is high.
  4. D.the income per head is low.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (the income per head is low.)

Explanation

Low income per head is the main mark of a developing country.

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Question 44

International Trade

Tariffs, quotas and embargoes are examples of

  1. A.foreign exchange policies.
  2. B.trade restriction policies.
  3. C.fiscal policies.
  4. D.monetary policies.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (trade restriction policies.)

Explanation

They all restrict imports.

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Question 45

International Trade

Trade protection will assist economic growth in developing countries if it can

  1. A.eliminate importation of all commodities.
  2. B.generate enough revenue through export duties.
  3. C.effectively safeguard newly established firms.
  4. D.allow the importation of cheaper goods people want.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (effectively safeguard newly established firms.)

Explanation

Protection helps growth by sheltering infant industries until they can compete.

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Question 46

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

A government may cause a favourable change in her invisible trade account by

  1. A.increasing the export of her primary products.
  2. B.imposing high tariff on exports.
  3. C.developing tourism and other services.
  4. D.encouraging people to go for medical treatment abroad.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (developing tourism and other services.)

Explanation

Tourism and other services are invisible exports.

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Question 47

International Trade

Country M enjoys absolute advantage over country N in the production of commodities X and Y, if country M

  1. A.can produce only commodity Y cheaper than country N.
  2. B.is more efficient than country N in producing both commodities X and Y.
  3. C.is inefficient in the production of both commodities X and Y.
  4. D.and country N is efficient in the production of both goods.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (is more efficient than country N in producing both commodities X and Y.)

Explanation

Absolute advantage means producing more efficiently than the other country.

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Question 48

International Economic Organisations

Which of the following is not a problem facing the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS)?

  1. A.Language barriers
  2. B.Production of the same commodities
  3. C.Poor transportation and communication
  4. D.Inadequate supply of labour
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Inadequate supply of labour)

Explanation

West Africa has plenty of labour; the others are real problems.

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Question 49

International Economic Organisations

Assisting members to solve temporary balance of payments problems is the reason for the establishment of the

  1. A.World Bank.
  2. B.International Monetary Fund.
  3. C.African Development Bank.
  4. D.Economic Commission for Africa.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (International Monetary Fund.)

Explanation

The IMF helps members with temporary balance of payments problems.

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Question 50

Natural Resources and Petroleum

Which of the following is a non-renewable natural resource?

  1. A.Cocoa
  2. B.Oil palm
  3. C.Coal
  4. D.Rubber
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Coal)

Explanation

Coal is a mineral that is used up.

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Theory question 101

Market Structures

The equilibrium position of a firm is illustrated in the diagram below. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow.
(a) Determine the firm's: (i) equilibrium output level; (ii) equilibrium price.
(b) At the equilibrium output level, calculate the firm's: (i) total cost; (ii) total revenue; (iii) total profit.
(c) Is the firm operating in the long-run or short-run? Explain your answer.
(d)(i) What type of market is the firm operating in? (ii) List three features of the market type identified in d (i).

Diagram for this question
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Model answer

(a)(i) 50 units (where MC = MR, MC rising); (ii) $40.
(b)(i) ATC at 50 units = $30: TC = 30 × 50 = $1,500; (ii) TR = 40 × 50 = $2,000; (iii) profit = 2,000 − 1,500 = $500.
(c) Short run: the firm earns supernormal profit (price above ATC); in the long run new firms would enter and remove it.
(d)(i) Perfect competition (AR = MR is horizontal).
(ii) Any three: many buyers and sellers; homogeneous product; free entry and exit; perfect knowledge; firms are price takers; perfect mobility of factors.

Explanation

Equilibrium is where MC = MR; profit = (AR − ATC) × Q.

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Theory question 102

Theory of Costs and Revenue

Table 1 below represents the output levels of a firm producing hand sanitizer. Use the information to answer the questions that follow.
Output (units) | 0 | 10 | 18 | 28 | 36 | 45
If the cost function of the firm is given as C = 30 + 4q, where C is the total cost and q is the units produced, calculate the:
(a) total cost in dollars of producing: (i) 18 units; (ii) 36 units.
(b) Average cost in dollars of producing: (i) 28 units; (ii) 45 units.
(c) What is the marginal cost in dollars of producing 28 units?
(d) Determine the profit made from producing 45 units when the market price is fixed at $5.00 per unit.
(e) Determine the fixed cost of the firm. Explain your answer.

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Model answer

(a)(i) 30 + 4(18) = $102; (ii) 30 + 4(36) = $174
(b)(i) TC = 30 + 4(28) = 142; AC = 142 ÷ 28 ≈ $5.07; (ii) TC = 30 + 4(45) = 210; AC = 210 ÷ 45 ≈ $4.67
(c) MC = (TC28 − TC18) ÷ (28 − 18) = (142 − 102) ÷ 10 = $4 (each extra unit adds $4)
(d) TR = 5 × 45 = $225; TC = $210; profit = $15
(e) $30: at q = 0, C = 30 + 4(0) = 30, the cost that must be paid even with no output.

Explanation

Substitute each output into C = 30 + 4q.

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Theory question 103

Basic Concepts

(a) Distinguish between: (i) money cost and opportunity cost; (ii) normal good and inferior good.
(b) Explain how the scale of preference assists the following economic groups in making efficient allocation of their resources: (i) individuals; (ii) firms; (iii) governments.

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Model answer

(a)(i) Money cost is the amount of money paid to obtain or produce a good; opportunity cost is the next best alternative given up.
(ii) A normal good is one whose demand rises when income rises; an inferior good is one whose demand falls when income rises.
(b)(i) Individuals rank their wants and spend limited income on the most pressing ones first, getting maximum satisfaction.
(ii) Firms rank possible products/projects by expected profit and put their limited capital into the most profitable first.
(iii) Governments rank projects by importance to citizens' welfare (e.g. health, education, roads) and fund the most urgent first within the budget.

Explanation

A scale of preference ranks wants so the most important are met first.

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Theory question 104

Economic Systems

(a) Define economic system.
(b) Distinguish between a capitalist economy and a socialist economy under the following: (i) aim of production; (ii) consumer sovereignty; (iii) competition.
(c) State three features of land as a factor of production.

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Model answer

(a) An economic system is the way a society organises the ownership and use of its resources to decide what, how and for whom to produce.
(b)(i) Aim: capitalism – profit; socialism – social welfare of all citizens.
(ii) Consumer sovereignty: capitalism – consumers' spending decides what is produced; socialism – the state planners decide, so consumer sovereignty is limited.
(iii) Competition: capitalism – many firms compete; socialism – little or no competition as the state controls production.
(c) Any three: fixed in supply; free gift of nature; geographically immobile; subject to diminishing returns; varies in fertility/quality; its reward is rent.

Explanation

Compare both systems point by point.

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Theory question 105

Business Organisations

(a) Differentiate between a sole proprietorship and a partnership.
(b) List four characteristics of a sole proprietorship.
(c) Outline four advantages of a public limited liability company.

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Model answer

(a) A sole proprietorship is owned, financed and controlled by one person who takes all profits and bears all losses; a partnership is owned by two to twenty persons who contribute capital and share profits and losses according to an agreement.
(b) Any four: one owner; unlimited liability; small capital; owner takes all decisions and profit; easy to form; no separate legal entity; lack of continuity; personal contact with customers.
(c) Any four: limited liability; large capital from the public; continuity (separate legal entity); shares freely transferable; professional management; economies of scale; easier access to loans.

Explanation

Compare number of owners, liability and capital.

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Theory question 106

Industrialisation

(a) Define location of industry.
(b) Explain how the following factors influence where a firm is sited: (i) raw materials; (ii) market; (iii) government policy.
(c) Outline three advantages of localization of industry.

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Model answer

(a) Location of industry is the choice of the place where a firm sets up its factory/business.
(b)(i) Raw materials: firms using bulky or weight-losing raw materials locate near them to cut transport costs (e.g. cement near limestone).
(ii) Market: firms making bulky, fragile or perishable goods locate near consumers (e.g. bakeries, soft drinks).
(iii) Government policy: incentives (tax holidays, industrial estates) or restrictions direct firms to particular areas for balanced development or security.
(c) Any three: pool of skilled labour; shared infrastructure and services; ancillary/supporting industries develop; specialised institutions (banks, training centres); reputation of the area; easier exchange of information; lower costs (external economies).

Explanation

Localization means concentration of one industry in an area.

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Theory question 107

National Income

(a) Define Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
(b) Describe the output approach as a method of computing national income.
(c) Identify any three problems associated with the expenditure approach of calculating national income.

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Model answer

(a) GDP is the total money value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders in a year.
(b) The output approach adds the money value of final output (or value added) of all sectors – agriculture, mining, manufacturing, services – in a year; intermediate goods are excluded or only value added is counted to avoid double counting; net factor income from abroad is added to get GNP.
(c) Any three: double counting of intermediate spending; difficulty in separating consumption and investment spending; unrecorded spending (informal sector, subsistence); transfer payments wrongly included; price changes/inflation; inadequate and unreliable data; illiteracy and poor records.

Explanation

Only final output or value added is counted.

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Theory question 108

International Trade

(a) What is an embargo?
(b) Outline any three reasons for imposing tariffs on imports.
(c) Explain any three reasons against the use of tariffs.

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Model answer

(a) An embargo is a total ban on trade (imports or exports) in a commodity or with a particular country.
(b) Any three: to raise government revenue; to protect infant industries; to reduce imports and correct balance of payments deficit; to prevent dumping; to discourage harmful goods; to create local employment; for retaliation.
(c) Any three: higher prices for consumers; protected firms may remain inefficient; other countries may retaliate; reduced choice and quality; encourages smuggling; reduces gains from specialisation and trade; may cause imported inflation for inputs.

Explanation

Tariffs protect producers but cost consumers.

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