WAEC Economics 2021 past questions and answers

58 questions. Try each one, then open the answer to check yourself and read the explanation.

Question 1

Basic Concepts

The study of economics is important to every society because it

  1. A.enables individuals to satisfy all their wants.
  2. B.helps in the utilization of scarce resources.
  3. C.helps producers to know what to produce.
  4. D.restores equilibrium between producers and consumers.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (helps in the utilization of scarce resources.)

Explanation

Economics teaches how to use scarce resources wisely.

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Question 2

Basic Concepts

A consumer with $10 needs a dress, a pair of shoes, a handbag and jewelry costing $20, $10, $7 and $3 respectively. The opportunity cost of buying the pair of shoes is the

  1. A.dress.
  2. B.jewelry.
  3. C.handbag and jewellery.
  4. D.dress and jewellery.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (handbag and jewellery.)

Explanation

Spending all $10 on shoes means giving up the handbag and jewellery, which together cost $10 and were the next affordable choice.

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Question 3

Theory of Production

The distinguishing function of an entrepreneur is

  1. A.planning.
  2. B.control.
  3. C.risk-bearing.
  4. D.management.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (risk-bearing.)

Explanation

Managers can plan and control; only the entrepreneur bears the risk of the business.

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Question 4

Economic Systems

When a commodity market operates without government interference, commodities are distributed through

  1. A.government distribution agencies.
  2. B.the operation of price mechanism.
  3. C.a central planning committee
  4. D.retailers only.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (the operation of price mechanism.)

Explanation

In a free market, prices decide who gets what.

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Question 5

Tools of Economic Analysis

One way of obtaining the median of a given data is to

  1. A.sum the value and divide by the number of items.
  2. B.arrange the data in ascending order and subtract each item from the mean.
  3. C.arrange the data in descending order and add each item to the least.
  4. D.arrange the data in either ascending or descending order and find what item divides the set in two equal parts.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (arrange the data in either ascending or descending order and find what item divides the set in two equal parts.)

Explanation

The median is the middle value after the data are put in order.

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Question 6

Price Determination

An increase in the rice harvest, all things being equal, may cause

  1. A.price to increase substantially.
  2. B.price to fall substantially.
  3. C.demand to fall substantially.
  4. D.farmer's incomes to be more than doubled
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (price to fall substantially.)

Explanation

A bigger harvest increases supply, so the price falls.

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Question 7

Theory of Demand

The demand for wood and labour is an example of

  1. A.effective demand.
  2. B.complementary demand
  3. C.derived demand
  4. D.competitive demand.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (derived demand)

Explanation

Wood and labour are wanted for what they help produce (e.g. furniture).

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Question 8

Theory of Demand

What will be the reaction of consumers in a market if there is a fall in the price of the substitute commodity X?

  1. A.Price of commodity X will increase
  2. B.Demand for the substitute of commodity X will decrease
  3. C.Demand for commodity X will decrease
  4. D.Supply of both commodity X and its substitute will increase.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Demand for commodity X will decrease)

Explanation

If X's substitute becomes cheaper, consumers switch to it and demand for X falls.

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Question 9

Theory of Supply

An increase in market supply is caused by the following factors except

  1. A.an improvement in innovation and technology.
  2. B.an increase in the price of the commodity
  3. C.a reduction in the cost of raw materials.
  4. D.a favourable weather condition.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (an increase in the price of the commodity)

Explanation

A rise in the good's own price increases quantity supplied, not supply.

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Question 10

Elasticity

The coefficient of price elasticity of supply of land is usually

  1. A.one
  2. B.greater than one
  3. C.zero
  4. D.less than one.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (zero)

Explanation

The supply of land is fixed, so it does not respond to price: elasticity 0.

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Question 11

Elasticity

The price of soap rose from $10 to $20 causing a trader to increase her supply from 50 to 120 boxes per week. This makes supply

  1. A.unitary elastic.
  2. B.perfectly inelastic.
  3. C.fairly elastic.
  4. D.inelastic.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (fairly elastic.)

Explanation

Quantity rose 140% for a 100% price rise: Es = 1.4, greater than 1 (fairly elastic).

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Question 12

Theory of Supply

A leftward shift in the supply curve for a commodity indicates

  1. A.an increase in quantity supplied
  2. B.a decrease in supply.
  3. C.a reduction in quantity supplied.
  4. D.an increase in supply.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (a decrease in supply.)

Explanation

A shift to the left means less is supplied at every price.

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Question 13

Theory of Supply

Market supply may increase if there is an increase in the

  1. A.price of the product
  2. B.prices of factors of production.
  3. C.tax paid on raw materials
  4. D.subsidies on raw materials.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (subsidies on raw materials.)

Explanation

Subsidies lower production costs, so supply increases.

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Question 14

Price Determination

Governments can increase farmers' incomes by

  1. A.fixing maximum prices.
  2. B.fixing minimum prices.
  3. C.encouraging them to produce surplus output.
  4. D.increasing taxes on inputs.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (fixing minimum prices.)

Explanation

A guaranteed minimum price protects farmers' income.

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Question 15

Price Determination

When market supply increases, the equilibrium price

  1. A.rises and quantity falls.
  2. B.falls and quantity rises.
  3. C.and quantity increase
  4. D.and quantity fall.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (falls and quantity rises.)

Explanation

More supply lowers price and raises the quantity traded.

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Question 16

Theory of Supply

The supply of mangoes is represented as P = 0.3Q, where P is the price ($) and Q is the quantity. What is P when Q is 50?

  1. A.$1.50
  2. B.$15.00
  3. C.$150.03
  4. D.$166.67
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B ($15.00)

Explanation

P = 0.3 × 50 = $15.

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Question 17

Theory of Production

The output of an extra unit of an input is referred to as

  1. A.output of the input.
  2. B.marginal product of the input
  3. C.average product of the input
  4. D.utility of the input employed.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (marginal product of the input)

Explanation

Marginal product is the extra output from one more unit of input.

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Question 18

Theory of Production

The law of diminishing returns is applicable to the

  1. A.fixed inputs of production.
  2. B.variable factors of production.
  3. C.plants and machinery of the firm.
  4. D.equipment and other capital.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (variable factors of production.)

Explanation

The law describes what happens to the returns of the variable factor added to fixed factors.

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Question 19

Theory of Costs and Revenue

A firm incurred the following costs in production. Use the information in the table to answer the question.
Output (bags of rice) | 0 | 10 | 20 | 30 | 40 | 50 | 60
Total Cost ($) | 100 | 200 | 300 | 380 | 440 | 520 | 600
The fixed cost of production is

  1. A.$100.
  2. B.$200.
  3. C.$300.
  4. D.$600
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A ($100.)

Explanation

Fixed cost is the cost at zero output: $100.

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Question 20

Theory of Costs and Revenue

A firm incurred the following costs in production. Use the information in the table to answer the question.
Output (bags of rice) | 0 | 10 | 20 | 30 | 40 | 50 | 60
Total Cost ($) | 100 | 200 | 300 | 380 | 440 | 520 | 600
The average cost of producing 40 bags of rice is

  1. A.$10
  2. B.$11
  3. C.$60.
  4. D.$80.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B ($11)

Explanation

AC = 440 ÷ 40 = $11.

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Question 21

Market Structures

The relationship between the marginal revenue (MR) and the average revenue (AR) of a monopolist is that the marginal revenue curve

  1. A.is above the average revenue curve.
  2. B.slopes down to the right and is below the AR curve.
  3. C.and the AR curve are downward sloping and are identical
  4. D.is vertical while the average revenue curve is horizontal.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (slopes down to the right and is below the AR curve.)

Explanation

A monopolist must cut price to sell more, so MR falls faster and lies below AR.

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Question 22

Business Organisations

A major source of finance to the Railway Corporation in West African countries is

  1. A.sale of shares
  2. B.government subvention.
  3. C.trade credit
  4. D.surplus
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (government subvention.)

Explanation

Public corporations depend mainly on government grants (subventions).

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Question 23

Business Organisations

Separation of ownership of resources and their control is mostly found in

  1. A.sole proprietorship.
  2. B.partnership.
  3. C.joint stock company.
  4. D.consumer co-operative
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (joint stock company.)

Explanation

Shareholders own a joint stock company while directors and managers run it.

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Question 24

Distributive Trade

By-passing the middlemen in the chain of distribution can lead to

  1. A.a problem of unemployment of labour
  2. B.the creation of artificial scarcity
  3. C.high prices of goods and services
  4. D.an increase in government tax revenue.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (a problem of unemployment of labour)

Explanation

Middlemen employ many people; removing them leaves those workers jobless.

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Question 25

Labour Market

Two factors which can improve the efficiency of labour are

  1. A.population size and age of retirement.
  2. B.school leaving age and number of disabled workers.
  3. C.work environment and health status of workers
  4. D.school leaving age and number of part-time workers.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (work environment and health status of workers)

Explanation

Good working conditions and healthy workers raise output per worker.

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Question 26

Population

The age distribution of a country's population is shown below. Use the information to answer the question.
Age group (years) | Population
0 – 15 | 30%
16 – 40 | 45%
41 – 60 | 15%
Over 60 | 10%
What is the percentage of the working population?

  1. A.75%
  2. B.60%
  3. C.45%
  4. D.15%
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (60%)

Explanation

Working ages 16–60: 45% + 15% = 60%.

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Question 27

Population

The age distribution of a country's population is shown below. Use the information to answer the question.
Age group (years) | Population
0 – 15 | 30%
16 – 40 | 45%
41 – 60 | 15%
Over 60 | 10%
What is the dependency ratio?

  1. A.2:3
  2. B.3:2
  3. C.1:2
  4. D.6:1
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (2:3)

Explanation

Dependants (0–15 and over 60) = 40%; workers = 60%; 40 : 60 = 2 : 3.

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Question 28

Theory of Production

The supply of land for agricultural purpose can be increased through

  1. A.the introduction of mechanized farming.
  2. B.reclamation and irrigation.
  3. C.increase in prices of land.
  4. D.conversion of building sites to farmlands.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (reclamation and irrigation.)

Explanation

Reclaiming swamps and irrigating dry land make more land usable for farming.

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Question 29

Industrialisation

Non-economic factors that influence the location of firms include

  1. A.the existence of required materials for production.
  2. B.availability of population of buyers.
  3. C.adequate supply of power, good road and rail network.
  4. D.the activities of politicians in deciding location of firms.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (the activities of politicians in deciding location of firms.)

Explanation

Political decisions are not based on costs or markets, so they are non-economic factors.

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Question 30

Business Organisations

Which of the following is not an argument for the policy of privatization in West Africa?

  1. A.To make businesses more profitable
  2. B.Government is able to participate and control the operation of the privatized businesses
  3. C.Members of the public are able to acquire shares
  4. D.It encourages the inflow of capital and expertise from local and foreign sources.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Government is able to participate and control the operation of the privatized businesses)

Explanation

Privatisation reduces government control, so this is not an argument for it.

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Question 31

National Income

The following data relates to the national income of a country. Use it to answer the question.
Gross domestic product = $2800
Net factor income from abroad = $250
Depreciation = $700
Indirect taxes = $120
What is the country's Gross National Product (GNP)?

  1. A.$3,050
  2. B.$2,680
  3. C.$2,350
  4. D.$2,100
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A ($3,050)

Explanation

GNP = GDP + net factor income from abroad = 2,800 + 250 = $3,050.

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Question 32

National Income

The following data relates to the national income of a country. Use it to answer the question.
Gross domestic product = $2800
Net factor income from abroad = $250
Depreciation = $700
Indirect taxes = $120
What is the country's Net National Product (NNP) at factor cost?

  1. A.$3,050
  2. B.$2,680
  3. C.$2,230
  4. D.$2,220
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C ($2,230)

Explanation

NNP at factor cost = 3,050 − 700 − 120 = $2,230.

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Question 33

National Income

The standard of living in two countries can be compared using the

  1. A.number of industries in each country
  2. B.size of their arms and ammunition
  3. C.size of their national incomes only
  4. D.gross national product per head.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (gross national product per head.)

Explanation

Income per head allows for different population sizes, so it is the fair basis for comparing living standards.

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Question 34

Money and Inflation

Government can curb inflation by

  1. A.encouraging banks to lend for any purpose.
  2. B.increasing her own expenditure.
  3. C.buying treasury bills in the open market.
  4. D.selling securities in the open market.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (selling securities in the open market.)

Explanation

Selling securities takes money out of circulation.

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Question 35

Money and Inflation

Functions of money does not include

  1. A.store of value.
  2. B.medium of exchange.
  3. C.standard of deferred payment.
  4. D.general acceptability.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (general acceptability.)

Explanation

General acceptability is a quality (characteristic) of money, not a function.

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Question 36

Money and Inflation

Demand-pull inflation can be as a result of

  1. A.increase in the cost of production.
  2. B.excessive supply of foodstuff.
  3. C.deficit financing by the government.
  4. D.increase in import duties.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (deficit financing by the government.)

Explanation

Deficit spending raises total demand above the supply of goods.

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Question 37

Financial Institutions

An increase in cash ratio by the central bank will

  1. A.increase the supply of money.
  2. B.increase banks' lending.
  3. C.encourage borrowing.
  4. D.reduce the supply of money.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (reduce the supply of money.)

Explanation

Banks must keep more cash, so they lend less and money supply falls.

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Question 38

Public Finance

When a government cuts down her expenditure to reduce inflation, she has embarked on

  1. A.a restrictive fiscal policy.
  2. B.an expansionary monetary policy.
  3. C.physical policy.
  4. D.implementing budget deficit.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (a restrictive fiscal policy.)

Explanation

Cutting government spending is a contractionary (restrictive) fiscal policy.

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Question 39

Public Finance

In order to enable the government of a country to increase its tax revenue, it will be advisable for it to increase taxes on

  1. A.textile materials with elastic demand.
  2. B.alcoholic beverages with inelastic demand.
  3. C.agricultural products with inelastic supply.
  4. D.luxury goods with elastic supply.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (alcoholic beverages with inelastic demand.)

Explanation

With inelastic demand people keep buying after the tax, so revenue rises.

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Question 40

Public Finance

People who dispose of their assets are expected to pay

  1. A.value added tax.
  2. B.capital gains tax.
  3. C.expenditure tax.
  4. D.sales tax.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (capital gains tax.)

Explanation

Capital gains tax is charged on profits from selling assets.

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Question 41

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

A floating exchange rate means that the exchange rate is fixed by the

  1. A.central bank of the country.
  2. B.forces of demand and supply
  3. C.International Monetary Fund (IMF).
  4. D.Ministry of Finance.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (forces of demand and supply)

Explanation

A floating rate is set by demand for and supply of the currency.

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Question 42

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

A measure that can be adopted to correct a country's balance of payments deficit is to

  1. A.allow the currency to appreciate to encourage imports.
  2. B.allow the currency to depreciate to encourage imports
  3. C.adopt import substitution strategy
  4. D.restrict trade with all countries.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (adopt import substitution strategy)

Explanation

Producing formerly imported goods at home cuts imports.

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Question 43

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

Records of a country's invisible trade are recorded in her

  1. A.trade account.
  2. B.capital account.
  3. C.current account
  4. D.financial account.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (current account)

Explanation

Services (invisibles) are part of the current account.

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Question 44

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

If a country's import bill is high, she can encourage exports by

  1. A.allowing her currency to depreciate.
  2. B.allowing her currency to appreciate.
  3. C.liberalizing importation.
  4. D.increasing taxes on all locally produced goods.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (allowing her currency to depreciate.)

Explanation

A cheaper currency makes exports cheaper abroad.

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Question 45

International Trade

If a country imposes a barrier on trade, the resultant effect will be

  1. A.a halt in buying and selling.
  2. B.high quality goods from local industries.
  3. C.an increase in the demand for locally produced goods.
  4. D.shutdown of infant industries.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (an increase in the demand for locally produced goods.)

Explanation

Imports become dearer, so people buy more local goods.

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Question 46

International Trade

A country may be able to earn more from exports if she

  1. A.increase her export duty.
  2. B.devalues her currency.
  3. C.increases her import duty.
  4. D.allows her currency to appreciate.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (devalues her currency.)

Explanation

Devaluation makes exports cheaper abroad so more are sold (if demand is elastic).

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Question 47

International Economic Organisations

A customs union is an economic grouping which has

  1. A.free movement of factors of production
  2. B.common tariffs against non-members.
  3. C.common currency for trading.
  4. D.common military defence.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (common tariffs against non-members.)

Explanation

A customs union has free trade inside and a common external tariff.

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Question 48

International Economic Organisations

Balance of payments and trade problems that arose after the world wars were resolved by the

  1. A.International Bank for Reconstruction and Development.
  2. B.International Monetary Fund.
  3. C.African Development Bank.
  4. D.Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (International Monetary Fund.)

Explanation

The IMF was set up to deal with balance of payments and exchange problems; the IBRD financed reconstruction.

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Question 49

Theory of Production

Examples of land that are non-renewable include

  1. A.marshy and water-logged land.
  2. B.farmlands already used for many years.
  3. C.some natural resources such as natural gas.
  4. D.oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (some natural resources such as natural gas.)

Explanation

Natural gas is used up and cannot be replaced.

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Question 50

Economic Growth and Development

Abundant natural resources do not contribute to economic growth in developing countries because of

  1. A.high rate of inflation.
  2. B.urban congestion.
  3. C.over-reliance on multiple commodities.
  4. D.mismanagement and corruption.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (mismanagement and corruption.)

Explanation

Revenues from resources are wasted through mismanagement and corruption.

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Theory question 101

Population

Table 1 below shows the distribution of the population of a country in various occupations. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
Occupation | Total
Shoe production | 30 million
Banking | 37 million
Fish processing | 19 million
Warehousing | 12.2 million
Mining | 16.1 million
Fish farming | 10.8 million
Food crop production | 15.6 million
Baking | 19 million
Laundry | 10.3 million
(a) Calculate the size of the entire labour force in the country.
(b) What percentage of the labour force is engaged in the: (i) primary sector; (ii) secondary sector (iii) tertiary sector?
(c) Calculate the ratio of the workers in mining to the workers in shoe production.
(d) Calculate the percentage of the people engaged in warehousing.
(e)(i) Identify the type of economy depicted in the table. (ii) Give a reason for your answer in 1(e)(i).

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Model answer

(a) 30 + 37 + 19 + 12.2 + 16.1 + 10.8 + 15.6 + 19 + 10.3 = 170 million
(b)(i) Primary (mining, fish farming, food crop production) = 42.5 million: 42.5/170 × 100 = 25%
(ii) Secondary (shoe production, fish processing, baking) = 68 million: 68/170 × 100 = 40%
(iii) Tertiary (banking, warehousing, laundry) = 59.5 million: 59.5/170 × 100 = 35%
(c) Mining : shoe production = 16.1 : 30 (about 0.54 : 1, or 161 : 300)
(d) 12.2/170 × 100 ≈ 7.2%
(e)(i) A developed (industrialised) economy.
(ii) Most of the labour force (75%) is in the secondary and tertiary sectors; only 25% is in primary production.

Explanation

Sort each occupation into primary, secondary or tertiary before adding.

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Theory question 102

Market Structures

Table 2 below shows the unit prices and quantities of hats produced by a firm. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
Quantity | Unit Price ($) | Total Revenue ($) | Marginal Revenue ($) | Average Revenue ($)
10 | 180 | 1,800 | – | 180
20 | 150 | 3,000 | 120 | X
30 | U | 3,600 | 60 | 120
40 | 100 | V | W | Y
50 | 80 | 4,000 | 0 | 80
60 | 60 | 3,600 | −40 | 60
(a) Compute the values of U, V, W, X and Y.
(b) In what type of market is the firm operating? Explain your answer.
(c) If the firm's marginal cost is $60.00 at all levels of output, at what level of output will it be in equilibrium? Explain your answer.
(d) If a total cost of $600.00 is incurred when 50 units of hats are produced, determine the margin of profit or loss made.
(e) What is another name for marginal cost?

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Model answer

(a) U = 3,600 ÷ 30 = $120; V = 100 × 40 = $4,000; W = (4,000 − 3,600) ÷ 10 = $40; X = 3,000 ÷ 20 = $150; Y = 4,000 ÷ 40 = $100
(b) Imperfect competition (monopoly/monopolistic competition): price falls as more is sold, so AR slopes downward and MR is below AR.
(c) At 30 units, where MR = MC = $60; producing more would add less to revenue than to cost.
(d) At 50 units: TR = $4,000, TC = $600; profit = 4,000 − 600 = $3,400.
(e) Incremental cost (also called differential cost).

Explanation

MR is per unit, so divide each change in TR by the change in quantity (10).

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Theory question 103

Theory of Production

(a) What is economies of scale?
(b) Outline three internal economies of scale a firm can enjoy.
(c) State three factors that can influence where a firm is sited.

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Model answer

(a) Economies of scale are the advantages (lower average cost) a firm enjoys as its scale of production increases.
(b) Any three: technical; managerial; financial; marketing (bulk buying and selling); risk-bearing; research; welfare economies.
(c) Any three: nearness to raw materials; nearness to market; availability of labour; power and water supply; transport and communication; government policy; availability of land; security; external economies (existing industries).

Explanation

Internal economies come from the firm's own growth.

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Theory question 104

Distributive Trade

(a) Define product retailing.
(b) Outline any three roles performed by the wholesaler to the manufacturer.
(c) Identify any three problems associated with distribution of products.

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Model answer

(a) Product retailing is the sale of goods in small quantities directly to final consumers.
(b) Any three: buys in bulk, saving the manufacturer the cost of many small sales; provides storage/warehousing; finances the manufacturer by paying promptly or in advance; gives market information on consumer tastes; advertises and promotes products; bears risks of price changes and damage; transports goods.
(c) Any three: poor roads and transport; inadequate storage; too many middlemen; hoarding and artificial scarcity; insecurity; poor communication; high cost of fuel; multiple taxes and levies; smuggling.

Explanation

Wholesalers link manufacturers with retailers.

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Theory question 105

Elasticity

(a) Define price elasticity of demand.
(b) Distinguish between elastic demand and inelastic demand.
(c) Using diagrams, explain what happens to a trader's total revenue when his price falls, given that demand for his product is: (i) elastic; (ii) inelastic.

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Model answer

(a) Price elasticity of demand is the degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in the commodity's own price (% change in Qd ÷ % change in price).
(b) Elastic demand: quantity demanded changes by a larger percentage than price (coefficient > 1). Inelastic demand: quantity changes by a smaller percentage than price (coefficient < 1).
(c)(i) Elastic (flatter curve): a fall in price causes a more than proportionate rise in quantity, so total revenue rises; area OP2RQ2 is larger than OP1TQ1.
(ii) Inelastic (steeper curve): a fall in price causes a less than proportionate rise in quantity, so total revenue falls; the new rectangle is smaller.

Explanation

Compare the revenue rectangles before and after the price fall.

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Theory question 106

Market Structures

(a) State three characteristics of perfect competition.
(b) With the aid of diagrams, explain the equilibrium positions of a perfectly competitive firm in the: (i) short-run; (ii) long-run

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Model answer

(a) Any three: many buyers and sellers; homogeneous product; free entry and exit; perfect knowledge; perfect mobility of factors; firms are price takers; no transport costs.
(b)(i) Short run: equilibrium where MC = MR (= AR = price) with MC rising. If AR is above ATC at that output the firm earns supernormal profit (shaded rectangle); if below ATC it makes a loss (but continues if price covers AVC).
(ii) Long run: free entry/exit removes supernormal profit or losses; equilibrium where MC = MR = AR = minimum ATC, so the firm earns only normal profit. Diagrams show the horizontal AR = MR line, U-shaped MC and ATC curves, and the equilibrium output.

Explanation

In the long run, P = MR = MC = minimum AC.

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Theory question 107

Financial Institutions

(a) Explain how the Central Bank controls money supply through the use of: (i) open market operations; (ii) bank rate.
(b) Outline four functions performed by the Central Bank of your country.

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Model answer

(a)(i) Open market operations: to reduce money supply the central bank sells government securities to the public and banks, taking cash out of the system and reducing banks' ability to lend; to increase money supply it buys securities, releasing cash.
(ii) Bank rate: the rate at which the central bank lends to commercial banks; raising it makes borrowing dearer throughout the economy, so credit and money supply fall; lowering it does the opposite.
(b) Any four: issues currency; banker to government; bankers' bank; lender of last resort; controls money supply and credit; manages the national debt; manages foreign reserves and exchange rate; supervises banks; advises government on monetary matters; clearing house.

Explanation

Selling securities and raising the bank rate both reduce money supply.

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Theory question 108

International Trade

(a) Distinguish between domestic trade and external trade.
(b) Distinguish between terms of trade and balance of trade.
(c) Outline four causes of balance of payments deficit in a country.

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(a) Domestic (home) trade is buying and selling within a country, using one currency; external (foreign) trade is buying and selling between countries, involving different currencies and customs formalities.
(b) Terms of trade is the rate at which a country's exports exchange for its imports (index of export prices ÷ index of import prices × 100). Balance of trade is the difference between the value of visible exports and visible imports.
(c) Any four: excessive imports; low export earnings/dependence on few primary exports; fall in world prices of exports; heavy debt servicing; capital flight/repatriation of profits; overvalued currency; inflation making exports uncompetitive; high spending on foreign services.

Explanation

Terms of trade is about prices; balance of trade is about values.

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