WAEC Economics 2011 past questions and answers

61 questions. Try each one, then open the answer to check yourself and read the explanation.

Question 1

Basic Concepts

Human wants are

  1. A.limited.
  2. B.scarce.
  3. C.unlimited.
  4. D.in grades.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (unlimited.)

Explanation

Human wants are endless: as one is satisfied, another appears.

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Question 2

Basic Concepts

The difference between the money cost and the real cost of any item is that

  1. A.real cost is the alternative forgone while the money cost is the actual amount paid for buying the item.
  2. B.the real cost is the opportunity cost, while the money cost is the marginal cost.
  3. C.money cost is the opportunity cost, while the real cost is the actual cost in monetary terms.
  4. D.money cost is always greater than real cost.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (real cost is the alternative forgone while the money cost is the actual amount paid for buying the item.)

Explanation

Real (opportunity) cost is what you give up; money cost is the price you pay.

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Question 3

Basic Concepts

The Production Possibility Curve (PPC) indicates that as more of one good is produced

  1. A.less of the other good is produced.
  2. B.the same quantity of the other good is produced.
  3. C.more of the other good is produced.
  4. D.none of the other good is produced.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (less of the other good is produced.)

Explanation

With fixed resources, producing more of one good means giving up some of the other.

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Question 4

Tools of Economic Analysis

An arrangement of data in rows and columns is referred to as a

  1. A.graph.
  2. B.bar chart.
  3. C.pie chart.
  4. D.table.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (table.)

Explanation

A table sets data out in rows and columns.

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Question 6

Elasticity

The co-efficient of income elasticity of demand for inferior goods is

  1. A.positive.
  2. B.equal to one.
  3. C.less than one.
  4. D.negative.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (negative.)

Explanation

Demand for inferior goods falls as income rises, so income elasticity is negative.

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Question 7

Elasticity

If a 20% rise in the price of Whisky leads to a 30% increase in quantity demanded of Schnapps, the cross elasticity of demand is

  1. A.3.0.
  2. B.2.5.
  3. C.2.3.
  4. D.1.5.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (1.5.)

Explanation

Cross elasticity = % change in quantity of Schnapps ÷ % change in price of Whisky = 30 ÷ 20 = 1.5.

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Question 8

Theory of Supply

Palm oil and palm kernel have

  1. A.competitive supply.
  2. B.excess supply.
  3. C.joint supply.
  4. D.composite supply.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (joint supply.)

Explanation

Palm oil and palm kernel come from the same palm fruit, so producing one gives the other: joint supply.

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Question 9

Elasticity

A supply curve which is vertical has an elasticity co-efficient of

  1. A.0.
  2. B.0.5.
  3. C.1.5.
  4. D.2.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (0.)

Explanation

A vertical supply curve means quantity does not change at all with price: perfectly inelastic, coefficient 0.

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Question 10

Money and Inflation

If the current price of an apple is twice that of last year, it implies that the value of money is

  1. A.stable.
  2. B.falling.
  3. C.rising.
  4. D.getting stronger.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (falling.)

Explanation

When prices rise, each naira buys less, so the value of money falls.

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Question 11

Price Determination

Price fixed above the equilibrium is to

  1. A.protect agricultural producers.
  2. B.discourage agricultural producers.
  3. C.lower the prices of agricultural produce.
  4. D.favour consumers.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (protect agricultural producers.)

Explanation

A minimum (floor) price above equilibrium guarantees producers a good price.

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Question 12

Theory of Demand

A consumer purchasing a commodity X will maximize his satisfaction if

  1. A.Px = MUx
  2. B.Px ≥ MUx
  3. C.Px > MUx
  4. D.Px < MUx
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Px = MUx)

Explanation

Satisfaction is maximised when the marginal utility of the last unit equals its price.

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Question 13

Theory of Consumer Behaviour

When total utility is constant, it means marginal utility is

  1. A.increasing.
  2. B.zero.
  3. C.decreasing.
  4. D.one.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (zero.)

Explanation

If total utility does not change, the extra unit adds nothing: MU = 0.

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Question 14

Theory of Demand

A rational consumer is one who

  1. A.spends his income to maximize satisfaction.
  2. B.is not influenced by advertisement.
  3. C.behaves in a particular way all the time.
  4. D.knows the prices of all goods and buys the cheapest.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (spends his income to maximize satisfaction.)

Explanation

A rational consumer uses limited income to get the greatest possible satisfaction.

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Question 15

Theory of Production

Which of the following is not true about land?

  1. A.The supply is fixed
  2. B.Land is mobile
  3. C.It is subject to diminishing returns
  4. D.Land is heterogeneous
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Land is mobile)

Explanation

Land cannot be moved from place to place; it is geographically immobile.

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Question 16

Theory of Production

The type of production that involves the tapping and harnessing of natural resources is

  1. A.primary production.
  2. B.secondary production.
  3. C.tertiary production.
  4. D.industrial production.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (primary production.)

Explanation

Primary production extracts resources directly from nature.

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Question 17

Theory of Costs and Revenue

Which of the following does not change in the short run?

  1. A.Variable cost
  2. B.Marginal cost
  3. C.Total cost
  4. D.Fixed cost
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Fixed cost)

Explanation

Fixed costs stay the same whatever is produced in the short run.

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Question 18

Theory of Production

The resources used in production are called

  1. A.variable inputs.
  2. B.factors of production.
  3. C.capital for production.
  4. D.fixed inputs.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (factors of production.)

Explanation

Land, labour, capital and entrepreneurship are the factors of production.

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Question 19

Market Structures

A firm will shut down in the long run if its earning is

  1. A.less than normal profit.
  2. B.greater than normal profit.
  3. C.equal to super normal profit.
  4. D.less than super normal profit.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (less than normal profit.)

Explanation

In the long run a firm must at least earn normal profit, otherwise it leaves the industry.

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Question 20

Market Structures

A market structure where profit is maximized when marginal revenue, marginal cost and price are equal is known as

  1. A.perfect competition.
  2. B.monopoly.
  3. C.oligopoly.
  4. D.imperfect competition.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (perfect competition.)

Explanation

Only under perfect competition is price equal to MR, so P = MR = MC at the best output.

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Question 21

Market Structures

In which of the following markets does a firm have power to make super normal profits both in the short run and long run?

  1. A.Monopoly
  2. B.Duopoly
  3. C.Oligopoly
  4. D.Monopsony
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Monopoly)

Explanation

Barriers to entry stop new firms from competing away a monopolist's abnormal profit.

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Question 22

Market Structures

If there are no barriers to entering a market, it means that

  1. A.anyone can become a buyer or seller.
  2. B.unwanted goods can always enter the market.
  3. C.the market becomes a dumping ground.
  4. D.the goods are not inspected.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (anyone can become a buyer or seller.)

Explanation

Free entry means any buyer or seller can join the market.

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Question 23

Business Organisations

A firm's main aim is to

  1. A.survive in business.
  2. B.maximize profits.
  3. C.increase its market share.
  4. D.satisfy the ambitions of its managers.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (maximize profits.)

Explanation

Economic theory assumes the main aim of a firm is profit maximisation.

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Question 24

Distributive Trade

One good reason for the elimination of middlemen is that they

  1. A.cause increase in price.
  2. B.help in price stability.
  3. C.grade and blend goods.
  4. D.are too many.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (cause increase in price.)

Explanation

Each middleman adds a profit margin, which raises the price the consumer pays.

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Question 25

Population

The increase in population growth in big cities is referred to as

  1. A.settlement.
  2. B.migration.
  3. C.industrialization.
  4. D.urbanization.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (urbanization.)

Explanation

Urbanisation is the growth of towns and cities and of the share of people living in them.

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Question 26

Labour Market

Frictional unemployment can be reduced by

  1. A.encouraging the use of restaining schemes.
  2. B.removing barriers to labour mobility.
  3. C.restricting the introduction of new technology.
  4. D.lowering the level of wages paid to young people.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (removing barriers to labour mobility.)

Explanation

Frictional unemployment is due to delays in moving between jobs, so making labour more mobile reduces it.

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Question 27

Labour Market

If the labour force of a country is 2.5 million and 2 million are employed, what is the unemployment rate?

  1. A.0.2%
  2. B.20%
  3. C.200%
  4. D.250%
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (20%)

Explanation

Unemployed = 2.5 − 2 = 0.5 million; 0.5 ÷ 2.5 × 100 = 20%.

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Question 28

Population

The grouping of population according to the economic activities people engage in is

  1. A.age distribution.
  2. B.sex distribution.
  3. C.geographical distribution.
  4. D.occupational distribution.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (occupational distribution.)

Explanation

Grouping people by their jobs is occupational distribution.

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Question 29

Population

Natural growth rate of population can be defined as the

  1. A.difference between birth rate and death rate.
  2. B.number of births in a year.
  3. C.increase in the population growth in a year.
  4. D.difference between the total population and the death rate.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (difference between birth rate and death rate.)

Explanation

Natural growth = birth rate − death rate (ignoring migration).

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Question 30

Labour Market

Which of the following is not a consequence of increased unemployment?

  1. A.A fall in tax revenue for the government
  2. B.A reduction in trade union's influence
  3. C.A fall in the death rate
  4. D.An increase in the labour force
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (A fall in the death rate)

Explanation

Unemployment lowers incomes and welfare; it does not reduce the death rate.

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Question 31

Agriculture

The following are features of subsistence agriculture except

  1. A.little capital.
  2. B.processing of raw materials.
  3. C.small allotments of land.
  4. D.use of crude implements.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (processing of raw materials.)

Explanation

Subsistence farmers grow food for their families with little capital and simple tools; they do not process raw materials.

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Question 32

Business Organisations

Which of the following is not true of small companies? They

  1. A.cannot benefit from economies of scale
  2. B.are a good source of new jobs.
  3. C.can satisfy demand in specialist markets.
  4. D.have a good record of technical innovations.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (cannot benefit from economies of scale)

Explanation

Small firms do enjoy some economies of scale, so saying they cannot benefit at all is untrue; the other statements are true.

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Question 33

Business Organisations

The effect of privatization on the industrial sector of a country is that it

  1. A.ensures efficiency.
  2. B.discourages efficiency.
  3. C.leads to decrease in output.
  4. D.leads to liquidation.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (ensures efficiency.)

Explanation

Private owners seeking profit tend to run firms more efficiently.

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Question 34

Population

The production strategy used in an over-populated country is

  1. A.import substitution.
  2. B.capital intensive
  3. C.labour intensive.
  4. D.first come first employed.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (labour intensive.)

Explanation

Where labour is plentiful, labour-intensive methods create more jobs and use the abundant factor.

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Question 35

National Income

National income is used to measure

  1. A.a country's population size.
  2. B.a country's economic growth.
  3. C.the human level of development.
  4. D.the flow of imports to a country.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (a country's economic growth.)

Explanation

A rise in real national income over time shows economic growth.

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Question 36

Public Finance

A tax is regressive if the

  1. A.rate of tax is constant at all income levels.
  2. B.rate of tax decreases as income increases.
  3. C.rate of tax increases as income increases.
  4. D.tax is direct rather than indirect.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (rate of tax decreases as income increases.)

Explanation

A regressive tax takes a smaller percentage as income rises.

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Question 37

National Income

When a country's net income from abroad is added to its total output, the result is

  1. A.gross domestic product.
  2. B.net national product.
  3. C.gross national product.
  4. D.net domestic product.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (gross national product.)

Explanation

GNP = GDP + net income from abroad.

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Question 38

National Income

A fall in national output will necessitate

  1. A.a rise in expenditure on imports.
  2. B.a rise in the level of savings.
  3. C.an increase in consumption expenditure.
  4. D.a rise in the standard of living.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (a rise in expenditure on imports.)

Explanation

With less produced at home, the country must import more to meet its needs.

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Question 39

Money and Inflation

The demand for money to take advantage of changes in bond prices is the

  1. A.unforeseen motive.
  2. B.transaction motive.
  3. C.speculative motive.
  4. D.precautionary motive.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (speculative motive.)

Explanation

Holding money to buy bonds when prices are favourable is the speculative motive.

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Question 40

Money and Inflation

Cost push inflation is caused by a

  1. A.rise in the cost of production.
  2. B.decrease in the transportation cost.
  3. C.rise in demand for goods.
  4. D.decrease in the cost of production.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (rise in the cost of production.)

Explanation

When production costs rise, firms push up prices: cost-push inflation.

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Question 41

Money and Inflation

Deposits held in a commercial bank are part of

  1. A.money supply.
  2. B.transfer payments.
  3. C.ordinary shares.
  4. D.treasury bills.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (money supply.)

Explanation

Bank deposits, together with currency, make up the money supply.

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Question 42

Financial Institutions

One profitable form of business undertaken by the commercial banks is

  1. A.the issuing of cheques.
  2. B.the payment of standing order.
  3. C.lending money to borrowers.
  4. D.accepting cheques from customers.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (lending money to borrowers.)

Explanation

Banks earn interest by lending; this is their main source of profit.

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Question 43

Public Finance

When governments want to discourage consumption, they tax goods whose demand is

  1. A.price inelastic.
  2. B.abnormal in nature.
  3. C.price elastic.
  4. D.normal in nature.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (price elastic.)

Explanation

When demand is elastic, the price rise caused by a tax makes consumption fall sharply.

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Question 44

Public Finance

A rise in government expenditure can lead to

  1. A.higher inflation.
  2. B.higher unemployment.
  3. C.lower profits for industries.
  4. D.lower importation of raw materials by industries.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (higher inflation.)

Explanation

More government spending increases total demand, which can push prices up.

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Question 45

International Trade

Tariff is used to protect domestic industries by making foreign goods relatively

  1. A.cheaper in the domestic market.
  2. B.more expensive in the domestic market.
  3. C.more expensive in the international market.
  4. D.cheaper in the international market.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (more expensive in the domestic market.)

Explanation

A tariff is a tax on imports, raising their price at home so local goods can compete.

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Question 46

Economic Growth and Development

The process of increasing the real per capita income and effecting changes in various sectors of the economy is known as

  1. A.economic acceleration.
  2. B.economic development.
  3. C.economic integration.
  4. D.economic growth.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (economic development.)

Explanation

Development means higher real income per head together with structural and social improvement.

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Question 47

Economic Growth and Development

Development plans in West Africa tend to deviate from their targets mainly due to

  1. A.political instability.
  2. B.lack of manpower.
  3. C.high population growth rate.
  4. D.low level of education.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (political instability.)

Explanation

Frequent changes of government and coups disrupt and abandon development plans.

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Question 48

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

The balance of trade is

  1. A.an annual statement showing transactions within a country.
  2. B.the relationship between a country's visible exports and imports.
  3. C.the relationship between a country's receipt from visible and invisible trade.
  4. D.an account that shows a country's payments to other countries.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (the relationship between a country's visible exports and imports.)

Explanation

The balance of trade compares the value of visible exports with visible imports.

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Question 49

International Trade

As one of the instruments of commercial policy, quota is

  1. A.a qualitative restriction on imports.
  2. B.a normal restriction on imports.
  3. C.a quantitative restriction on imports.
  4. D.an outright prohibition of imports.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (a quantitative restriction on imports.)

Explanation

A quota limits the quantity of a good that may be imported.

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Question 50

International Economic Organisations

The full meaning of the IMF is

  1. A.International Military Force.
  2. B.International Monetary Fund.
  3. C.International Mortgage Fund.
  4. D.International Monetary Financing.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (International Monetary Fund.)

Explanation

IMF stands for International Monetary Fund.

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Theory question 101

Elasticity

The supply situation for rice in country X over a period is as shown in the table below. Use the information in the table to answer the questions that follow:
Periods | Price ($) | Quantity Supplied (bags)
December 2004 | 30 | 100
January 2007 | 40 | 150
April 2009 | 50 | 160
(a) Calculate the co-efficient of price elasticity of supply for rice between December 2004 and January 2007.
(b) Is the supply of rice elastic or inelastic? Give a reason for your answer.
(c) State any three reasons which may cause an increase in the supply of rice.

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Model answer

(a) % change in quantity supplied = (150 − 100)/100 × 100 = 50%
% change in price = (40 − 30)/30 × 100 = 33.3%
Es = 50 ÷ 33.3 = 1.5
(b) Elastic, because the coefficient (1.5) is greater than 1: quantity supplied changed by a bigger percentage than price.
(c) Any three: improved technology/mechanised farming; fall in the cost of inputs (fertiliser, seeds, labour); good weather; government subsidies or tax relief; fall in the prices of other crops farmers could grow; more producers/importers; better storage and transport.

Explanation

Use the original values (December 2004) as the base.

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Theory question 102

Tools of Economic Analysis

The following are the loans granted by a commercial bank to different categories of individuals. Use the information to answer the questions that follow: Bakers $8,000, Farmers $8,000, Miners $7,000, Retailers $5,000, Tailors $4,000, Teachers $6,000, Drivers $4,000, Fishermen $3,000
(a) Arrange the information in the form of a table grouping the individuals into: (i) Primary Sector; (ii) Secondary Sector; (iii) Tertiary Sector.
(b) Express the loan to each sector as a ratio of the total loan granted.
(c) Present the total loans granted to the sectors in a simple bar chart. (Use of graph sheet is essential)

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Model answer

(a) Primary: Farmers $8,000, Miners $7,000, Fishermen $3,000 – total $18,000
Secondary: Bakers $8,000, Tailors $4,000 – total $12,000
Tertiary: Retailers $5,000, Teachers $6,000, Drivers $4,000 – total $15,000
Grand total = $45,000
(b) Primary 18,000 : 45,000 = 2 : 5; Secondary 12,000 : 45,000 = 4 : 15; Tertiary 15,000 : 45,000 = 1 : 3
(c) Sectors on the horizontal axis, loans ($) on the vertical axis; three bars of equal width and equal gaps with heights $18,000, $12,000 and $15,000; title, scale and labels.

Explanation

Bakers and tailors make goods (secondary); retailers, teachers and drivers give services (tertiary).

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Theory question 103

Economic Systems

(a) What is a centrally planned economy?
(b) Outline any four features of a capitalist economy.

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Model answer

(a) A centrally planned (command/socialist) economy is one in which the state owns the main means of production and a central planning authority decides what, how and for whom to produce.
(b) Any four: private ownership of property and means of production; profit motive; price mechanism allocates resources; consumer sovereignty; free enterprise and competition; minimal government interference; unequal distribution of income.

Explanation

Contrast state planning with the market-based features of capitalism.

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Theory question 104

Labour Market

(a) Define mobility of labour.
(b) Describe any four factors influencing the supply of labour.

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Model answer

(a) Mobility of labour is the ease with which workers can move from one job to another (occupational mobility) or from one place to another (geographical mobility).
(b) Any four: size of the population; age structure (proportion of working age); school-leaving and retirement ages; wage rate; number of hours worked and attitudes to work/leisure; participation of women; health of the population; migration; social and religious attitudes.

Explanation

Supply of labour is the number of people willing and able to work and the hours they offer.

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Theory question 105

International Trade

(a) What is international trade?
(b) Explain any four advantages of international trade.

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Model answer

(a) International trade is the exchange of goods and services between different countries, involving different currencies.
(b) Any four: countries get goods they cannot produce; specialisation according to comparative advantage raises world output; wider market and economies of scale; earns foreign exchange; lower prices and wider choice for consumers; transfer of technology and skills; promotes international co-operation; provides employment.

Explanation

Explain each advantage, especially specialisation and comparative advantage.

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Theory question 106

Business Organisations

Outline any five reasons why small scale firms are common in West Africa.

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Model answer

Any five: shortage of capital; small size of the market (low incomes); ease of setting up and few legal formalities; lack of managerial and technical skills; desire for independence and personal control; personal services demanded by customers; nature of products (perishable or fashion goods); difficulty of getting bank loans; government encouragement of small businesses; limited infrastructure.

Explanation

Most reasons relate to limited capital, small markets and low skills.

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Theory question 107

Theory of Demand

(a) Explain with examples the terms competitive demand and complementary demand.
(b) With the aid of diagrams, analyse the effect of a decrease in the import duty on cars on the price and consumption of petrol.

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Model answer

(a) Competitive demand: goods that are substitutes, so a rise in the price of one increases demand for the other, e.g. tea and coffee, Coca-Cola and Pepsi. Complementary (joint) demand: goods used together, so a rise in the price of one reduces demand for both, e.g. cars and petrol, torch and battery.
(b) Lower import duty makes cars cheaper, so more cars are bought (diagram 1: car supply shifts right, price falls, quantity rises). Cars and petrol are complements, so demand for petrol increases (diagram 2: petrol demand shifts right from D0 to D1); the price of petrol rises and more petrol is consumed.

Explanation

Complementary goods: cheaper cars mean more demand for petrol.

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Theory question 108

Population

(a) What is the demographic transition theory?
(b) Explain the three stages of the theory.

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Model answer

(a) The demographic transition theory explains how a country's population growth changes as it develops economically, through changes in birth and death rates.
(b) Stage 1 (pre-industrial): high birth rate and high death rate, so population growth is slow.
Stage 2 (developing/transitional): death rate falls because of better health care, food and sanitation, while birth rate stays high, so population grows rapidly.
Stage 3 (developed): birth rate also falls because of education, urbanisation and family planning; both rates are low and population growth is slow or stable.

Explanation

Each stage is described by the levels of birth and death rates.

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Theory question 109

Business Organisations

(a) Differentiate between shares and debentures.
(b) Identify any four problems encountered by firms in raising capital.

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Model answer

(a) Shares are units of ownership in a company; shareholders are owners, receive dividends that vary with profit and (ordinary shareholders) can vote. Debentures are long-term loans to a company; holders are creditors, receive fixed interest whether or not there is profit, are repaid first if the company is wound up, and have no voting rights.
(b) Any four: high interest rates; lack of collateral; poor/undeveloped capital market; small size and poor reputation of the firm; strict lending conditions of banks; low savings in the economy; poor records and accounts; political and economic instability discouraging investors; limited liability rules (for sole traders and partnerships, cannot sell shares).

Explanation

Shareholders are owners; debenture holders are lenders.

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Theory question 110

Business Organisations

(a) Describe the following types of co-operative societies: (i) consumers' co-operatives; (ii) producers' co-operatives (iii) thrift and credit co-operatives.
(b) Highlight any two problems faced by co-operative societies in West Africa.

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Model answer

(a)(i) Consumers' co-operatives: formed by consumers who buy goods in bulk and sell to members at fair prices, sharing any surplus as dividends based on purchases.
(ii) Producers' co-operatives: formed by producers (e.g. farmers) who pool resources to produce, process and market their output together and share the gains.
(iii) Thrift and credit co-operatives: members save regularly and can borrow from the pooled savings at low interest.
(b) Any two: shortage of capital; poor management and lack of skills; dishonesty and embezzlement; illiteracy of members; disloyalty of members; competition from large firms; government interference.

Explanation

Each type is defined by who forms it and what it does for members.

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Theory question 111

Economic Growth and Development

(a) What is economic development?
(b) Outline any five features of a developing economy.

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Model answer

(a) Economic development is a sustained increase in real per capita income accompanied by improvement in living standards and structural changes in the economy (education, health, technology, reduced poverty).
(b) Any five: low per capita income; dependence on agriculture and primary products; high population growth rate; high unemployment and underemployment; low level of technology; low savings and investment; poor infrastructure; high illiteracy; dependence on foreign aid and imports of manufactured goods; dualistic economy.

Explanation

Development is broader than growth: it includes welfare and structural change.

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Theory question 112

International Economic Organisations

(a) Outline any three objectives of the African Development Bank.
(b) State any two achievements of the African Development Bank.

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(a) Any three: to finance economic and social development projects of member countries; to mobilise funds from within and outside Africa for development; to promote investment of public and private capital in Africa; to give technical assistance for preparing and carrying out projects; to promote regional economic co-operation and integration; to reduce poverty.
(b) Any two: loans for roads, power, water and agriculture projects in member countries; technical assistance and training; financing regional projects linking countries; support for private sector development; emergency and debt relief support.

Explanation

AfDB is headquartered in Abidjan and lends for development projects.

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