WAEC Economics 2010 past questions and answers

61 questions. Try each one, then open the answer to check yourself and read the explanation.

Question 1

Basic Concepts

The following are examples of economic goods except

  1. A.bottled water.
  2. B.air.
  3. C.household utensils.
  4. D.shelter.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (air.)

Explanation

Air is a free gift of nature with no price; the others are scarce and must be paid for.

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Question 2

Theory of Production

A tent-making factory offers

  1. A.personal services.
  2. B.indirect services.
  3. C.social services.
  4. D.reflex services.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (indirect services.)

Explanation

A factory serves consumers indirectly through the goods it makes, not by personal contact.

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Question 3

Economic Systems

In which of the following economic systems do we have mostly private ownership of resources and individual decision making?

  1. A.Capitalist system
  2. B.Socialist system
  3. C.Mixed system
  4. D.Traditional system
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Capitalist system)

Explanation

Capitalism is based on private ownership and individual decisions guided by prices.

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Question 4

Tools of Economic Analysis

The sum of items divided by the number of items is the

  1. A.frequency.
  2. B.mean.
  3. C.median.
  4. D.mode.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (mean.)

Explanation

The arithmetic mean = sum of values ÷ number of values.

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Question 5

Tools of Economic Analysis

Find the median of the following set of scores 8, 9, 6, 5, 10

  1. A.9.
  2. B.8.
  3. C.6.
  4. D.5.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (8.)

Explanation

In order: 5, 6, 8, 9, 10; the middle value is 8.

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Question 6

Theory of Demand

Which of the following causes the demand curve to shift to the right?

  1. A.A reduction in the size of population
  2. B.An increase in the income of the buyer
  3. C.The availability of substitutes
  4. D.A decrease in price of the good
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (An increase in the income of the buyer)

Explanation

Higher income lets buyers purchase more at every price, so demand (for a normal good) increases.

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Question 7

Theory of Demand

Goods for which demand rises as income rises are

  1. A.complementary goods.
  2. B.inferior goods.
  3. C.normal goods.
  4. D.substitutes.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (normal goods.)

Explanation

Normal goods are bought in larger quantities as income increases.

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Question 8

Theory of Supply

The slope of a supply curve is

  1. A.horizontal.
  2. B.uniform.
  3. C.positive.
  4. D.vertical.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (positive.)

Explanation

More is supplied at higher prices, so the supply curve slopes upward: a positive slope.

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Question 9

Price Determination

Equilibrium price is the price at which quantity

  1. A.demanded is greater than quantity supplied.
  2. B.supplied is greater than quantity demanded.
  3. C.demanded is equal to quantity supplied.
  4. D.supplied equals quantity produced.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (demanded is equal to quantity supplied.)

Explanation

At equilibrium price there is neither a surplus nor a shortage.

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Question 10

Price Determination

A decrease in supply with demand remaining unchanged will cause the equilibrium price for a good to

  1. A.be unchanged.
  2. B.remain elastic.
  3. C.remain inelastic.
  4. D.rise.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (rise.)

Explanation

The supply curve shifts left, creating a shortage at the old price, so the price rises.

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Question 11

Theory of Consumer Behaviour

At the highest level of total utility, marginal utility is

  1. A.negative.
  2. B.positive and falling.
  3. C.positive and rising.
  4. D.zero.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (zero.)

Explanation

Total utility stops rising when the extra unit adds nothing, i.e. when marginal utility is zero.

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Question 12

Theory of Consumer Behaviour

The law of diminishing marginal utility states that, the more a commodity is consumed the

  1. A.higher the satisfaction derived from an additional unit.
  2. B.higher the price to be paid.
  3. C.lower the quantity supplied.
  4. D.lower the rate of increase in the total utility derived.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (lower the rate of increase in the total utility derived.)

Explanation

Each extra unit adds less satisfaction, so total utility rises at a slower and slower rate.

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Question 13

Theory of Production

Greater inter-dependence among workers in production is associated with

  1. A.utility.
  2. B.manufacturing.
  3. C.division of labour.
  4. D.factory workers.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (division of labour.)

Explanation

Under division of labour each worker does one part of the job and depends on others to finish the product.

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Question 14

Theory of Costs and Revenue

If TC, FC and VC represent total cost, fixed cost and variable cost respectively, which of the following is correct?

  1. A.TC = FC − VC
  2. B.FC = TC + VC
  3. C.TC > FC + VC
  4. D.TC = FC + VC
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (TC = FC + VC)

Explanation

Total cost is the sum of fixed cost and variable cost.

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Question 15

Theory of Production

The reward to land as a factor of production is

  1. A.profit.
  2. B.rent.
  3. C.interest.
  4. D.wage.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (rent.)

Explanation

Land earns rent.

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Question 16

Business Organisations

A firm is said to be a public joint stock company when it

  1. A.is owned by the government.
  2. B.sells its shares to members of the public.
  3. C.operates as a government corporation.
  4. D.is not legally recognized as a firm.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (sells its shares to members of the public.)

Explanation

A public company raises capital by selling shares to the general public.

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Question 18

Business Organisations

The public sector of an economy includes.

  1. A.cooperative societies.
  2. B.nationalized industries.
  3. C.joint stock companies.
  4. D.Pressure groups.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (nationalized industries.)

Explanation

The public sector is owned by government, including nationalised industries.

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Question 19

Business Organisations

One advantage of the Sole Proprietorship over other forms of business organizations is that it can

  1. A.make very high profits.
  2. B.employ many workers.
  3. C.keep its affairs private.
  4. D.produce on a very large scale.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (keep its affairs private.)

Explanation

A sole trader need not publish accounts, so business secrets are kept.

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Question 20

Market Structures

Which of the following is obtainable in a perfect market?

  1. A.P = MR > AR
  2. B.MP = MC > P
  3. C.MR < P
  4. D.P = MR = MC
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (P = MR = MC)

Explanation

A perfect competitor's price equals MR, and it produces where MR = MC, so P = MR = MC.

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Question 21

Distributive Trade

The wholesaler performs the following functions except

  1. A.breaking the bulk.
  2. B.offering credit facilities to consumers.
  3. C.financing manufacturers.
  4. D.buying in bulk from manufacturers.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (offering credit facilities to consumers.)

Explanation

Wholesalers give credit to retailers, not directly to final consumers.

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Question 22

Population

Age Group | 1983
0 – 15 | 30%
16 – 40 | 27%
41 – 60 | 25%
61 and above | 18%
The table shows the age distribution of country A in 1983. Using the data in the table, calculate the percentage of working population in 1983.

  1. A.48%
  2. B.52%
  3. C.57%
  4. D.70%
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (52%)

Explanation

The working ages are 16–60: 27% + 25% = 52%.

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Question 23

Population

A country whose population size is too small relative to its resources is

  1. A.over populated.
  2. B.optimally populated.
  3. C.under populated.
  4. D.producing the optimum output.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (under populated.)

Explanation

Too few people to make full use of the resources means under-population.

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Question 24

Labour Market

An efficient weapon used in resolving disputes between employers and employees is

  1. A.co-operation.
  2. B.collective bargaining.
  3. C.display of placards.
  4. D.legal action.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (collective bargaining.)

Explanation

Collective bargaining is negotiation between unions and employers to settle disputes.

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Question 25

Labour Market

Which of the following does not explain why a school principal earns more salary than a school messenger?

  1. A.Length of training
  2. B.Demand and Supply
  3. C.Cost of training
  4. D.The messenger is a non-teaching staff.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (The messenger is a non-teaching staff.)

Explanation

Pay differences come from training, skill and demand and supply, not from being non-teaching staff as such.

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Question 26

Agriculture

The role of government in promoting agricultural development includes the following except

  1. A.paying the wages of all farmers.
  2. B.establishing and funding research
  3. C.formulation of policies.
  4. D.provision of rural infrastructure.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (paying the wages of all farmers.)

Explanation

Government supports farmers with research, policy and infrastructure; it does not pay farmers' wages.

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Question 27

Agriculture

The following are advantages of large scale agriculture except

  1. A.use of simple implements
  2. B.use of sophisticated implements.
  3. C.increase in employment.
  4. D.integration of crop and animal farming.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (use of simple implements)

Explanation

Simple implements are a feature of small-scale peasant farming, not an advantage of large-scale farming.

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Question 28

Industrialisation

The following are all factors determining the location of industry except

  1. A.minimum wage rate.
  2. B.availability of labour.
  3. C.nearness to raw materials.
  4. D.proximity to market.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (minimum wage rate.)

Explanation

A national minimum wage applies everywhere in the country, so it does not decide where a firm locates.

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Question 29

National Income

Which of the following is not a concept in National Income accounting?

  1. A.Domestic National Product (DNP)
  2. B.Gross National Product (GNP)
  3. C.Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
  4. D.Net Domestic Product (NDP)
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Domestic National Product (DNP))

Explanation

There is no 'Domestic National Product'; GNP, GDP and NDP are standard measures.

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Question 30

National Income

Which of the following equations is appropriate for determining the Net Domestic Product (NDP)?

  1. A.NDP = GNP − depreciation
  2. B.NDP = GDP + Net Income from abroad
  3. C.NDP = GDP − depreciation
  4. D.NDP = GDP × Net Income from abroad
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (NDP = GDP − depreciation)

Explanation

Net domestic product is GDP less depreciation.

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Question 31

National Income

Which of the following over estimates the value of national income?

  1. A.Incomplete statistical data
  2. B.Wrong timing of computation
  3. C.Changes in prices of goods within the year
  4. D.Double counting
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Double counting)

Explanation

Counting the same output more than once makes national income look larger than it is.

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Question 32

Money and Inflation

The total stock of money available for use in an economy is

  1. A.a function of money.
  2. B.a characteristic of money.
  3. C.the demand for money.
  4. D.the supply of money.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (the supply of money.)

Explanation

The supply of money is the total amount of money in circulation.

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Question 33

Money and Inflation

Which of the following is not a reason for holding money?

  1. A.Ostentation
  2. B.Speculation
  3. C.Transactions
  4. D.Precautionary
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Ostentation)

Explanation

Keynes's motives for holding money are transactions, precautionary and speculative.

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Question 34

Money and Inflation

The best way of combating demand-pull inflation is to

  1. A.increase income taxes.
  2. B.reduce income taxes.
  3. C.increase import duties.
  4. D.increase salaries and wages.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (increase income taxes.)

Explanation

Higher income taxes cut disposable income and therefore excess demand.

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Question 35

Money and Inflation

In which of the following ways has inflation adversely affected your country's economy?

  1. A.Increase in money supply
  2. B.A fall in real income
  3. C.Appreciation in the value of money
  4. D.Increased employment.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (A fall in real income)

Explanation

Rising prices reduce what fixed money incomes can buy, so real income falls.

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Question 36

Money and Inflation

Which of the following is a legal tender?

  1. A.Bank notes
  2. B.Bank overdrafts
  3. C.Bills of exchange
  4. D.Money order
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Bank notes)

Explanation

Bank notes issued by the central bank must by law be accepted in payment.

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Question 37

Financial Institutions

The Central Bank controls money supply through all the following except

  1. A.lending to the public.
  2. B.bank rate.
  3. C.legal reserve requirements.
  4. D.open market operation.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (lending to the public.)

Explanation

The central bank does not lend to the general public; it uses bank rate, reserve requirements and open market operations.

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Question 38

Financial Institutions

One of the functions of the Central Bank is

  1. A.production of goods.
  2. B.issuing of currency.
  3. C.presenting budgets.
  4. D.printing of cheque books.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (issuing of currency.)

Explanation

The central bank is the sole issuer of a country's currency.

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Question 39

Financial Institutions

The function of the Central Bank as a lender of last resort means that when all other sources fail,

  1. A.the consumer can always borrow money from the Central Bank.
  2. B.the government can ask the Central Bank to print more money.
  3. C.commercial banks can raise loans from the Central Bank.
  4. D.commercial banks can deposit money with the Central Bank.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (commercial banks can raise loans from the Central Bank.)

Explanation

As lender of last resort the central bank lends to commercial banks that cannot get funds elsewhere.

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Question 40

Public Finance

One disadvantage of direct taxes is that they

  1. A.allocate scarce resources.
  2. B.are not rigid.
  3. C.can be progressive.
  4. D.can be evaded.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (can be evaded.)

Explanation

People can under-declare income to avoid paying direct taxes.

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Question 41

Public Finance

Excise duty is levied on

  1. A.the total population.
  2. B.local products.
  3. C.luxury goods.
  4. D.the working population.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (local products.)

Explanation

Excise duty is a tax on goods produced within the country.

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Question 42

Public Finance

A component of the national debt of a country is

  1. A.taxation.
  2. B.bank saving.
  3. C.the budget.
  4. D.treasury bills.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (treasury bills.)

Explanation

Treasury bills are short-term government borrowing and so form part of the national debt.

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Question 43

Public Finance

When the demand for a good is fairly inelastic, the burden of an indirect tax falls

  1. A.more on the consumers of the good.
  2. B.more on the sellers of the good.
  3. C.on sellers and consumers equally.
  4. D.completely on the capital.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (more on the consumers of the good.)

Explanation

Buyers keep buying despite the higher price, so sellers can pass most of the tax on to them.

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Question 44

International Trade

Dumping means the selling of a good in a foreign market at a price that is

  1. A.below the home market price.
  2. B.above the home market price.
  3. C.equal to the home market price.
  4. D.able to clear the home market.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (below the home market price.)

Explanation

Dumping is selling abroad more cheaply than at home (often below cost).

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Question 45

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

Which of the following group of accounts make up the balance of payments?

  1. A.The current account; company account and international multiple account and capital account
  2. B.Monetary movement account; … account
  3. C.Cash account; double entry account and current account
  4. D.Capital account; current account and monetary movement account
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Capital account; current account and monetary movement account)

Explanation

The balance of payments has a current account, a capital account and a monetary movements account.

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Question 46

Balance of Payments and Exchange Rates

A country's balance of payments is in deficit when

  1. A.a country's payment for imports of invisible goods are greater than her receipts from exports of invisible goods.
  2. B.the total receipts from her export of visible and invisible goods are greater than her payments for visible and invisible imports.
  3. C.it can record a surplus on current account of her balance of payments accounts.
  4. D.the total payments for visible and invisible imports are greater than the total receipts from her exports of visible and invisible goods.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (the total payments for visible and invisible imports are greater than the total receipts from her exports of visible and invisible goods.)

Explanation

A deficit means total payments abroad exceed total receipts from abroad.

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Question 47

International Economic Organisations

In order to stabilize oil price in the world market, there is the need for OPEC members to

  1. A.always have budget deficit.
  2. B.encourage competition among themselves.
  3. C.adhere to production quotas.
  4. D.fix the prices of non-oil products.
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (adhere to production quotas.)

Explanation

Keeping to agreed output quotas stops oversupply and keeps oil prices stable.

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Question 48

International Economic Organisations

Which of the following is not a member of the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS)?

  1. A.Cape verde
  2. B.Mauritania
  3. C.Cameroon
  4. D.Niger
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Cameroon)

Explanation

Cameroon is in Central Africa and has never been a member of ECOWAS.

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Question 49

International Economic Organisations

Which of the following is not a type of economic integration?

  1. A.Customs market
  2. B.Common market
  3. C.Economic union
  4. D.Free trade area
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Customs market)

Explanation

The forms of integration are free trade area, customs union, common market and economic union; there is no 'customs market'.

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Question 50

International Economic Organisations

Which of the following is not an international economic organization?

  1. A.Economic Commission for Africa (ECA)
  2. B.African Development Bank (ADB)
  3. C.World Health Organization (WHO)
  4. D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (World Health Organization (WHO))

Explanation

The WHO deals with health, not economic matters.

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Theory question 101

Theory of Consumer Behaviour

The table below represents a traveller's consumption of bottles of Coca-Cola. Study the table carefully and answer the questions that follow.
No. of bottles | Total Utility | Marginal Utility
1 | 15 | 15
2 | 29 | F
3 | 42 | 13
4 | D | 12
5 | 65 | G
6 | 75 | H
7 | E | 0
(a) Complete the missing figures D, E, F, G and H
(b) Draw the demand curve for the traveller's consumption of Coca-Cola. (The use of a graph sheet is essential).
(c) Explain the law of diminishing marginal utility as the basis for the slope of the traveller's demand curve.

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Model answer

(a) MU = TUn − TUn−1
F = 29 − 15 = 14; D = 42 + 12 = 54; G = 65 − 54 = 11; H = 75 − 65 = 10; E = 75 + 0 = 75
(b) Marginal utility (as the price the traveller is willing to pay) on the vertical axis against number of bottles on the horizontal axis; plot 15, 14, 13, 12, 11, 10, 0 against 1–7: a downward-sloping curve labelled DD with title and scale.
(c) Each extra bottle gives less satisfaction than the one before (MU falls from 15 to 0). A rational consumer buys more only if the price falls to match the lower marginal utility (MU = P), so more is bought only at lower prices: the demand curve slopes downward from left to right.

Explanation

Demand is derived from the MU curve because the consumer buys where MU = price.

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Theory question 102

Theory of Costs and Revenue

The table below represents the cost function of a poultry farm. The price of a crate of eggs is $21. Use the information contained in the table to answer the questions that follow.
Quantity of eggs (in crates) | Total Cost (in $)
0 | 50
1 | 55
2 | 62
3 | 75
4 | 96
5 | 125
6 | 162
7 | 203
8 | 248
(a) What is the fixed cost of the farm?
(b) (i) Calculate the marginal cost at each level of output. (ii) What is the profit maximizing output of the farm?
(c) Draw the demand curve for the farm.

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Model answer

(a) Fixed cost = total cost at zero output = $50.
(b)(i) MC = TCn − TCn−1: 1 → 5; 2 → 7; 3 → 13; 4 → 21; 5 → 29; 6 → 37; 7 → 41; 8 → 45
(ii) Profit is maximised where MC = MR = price = $21: output = 4 crates.
(c) The farm is a price taker: its demand (AR = MR) curve is a horizontal straight line at $21 for all quantities, i.e. perfectly elastic; label axes (price, quantity).

Explanation

Fixed cost is the cost when nothing is produced; at a given market price, MR = price.

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Theory question 103

Elasticity

With an appropriate illustration, explain the circumstance in which an increase in output of a producer would (a) decrease his sales revenue; (b) increase his sales revenue.

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Model answer

(a) When demand for the product is inelastic (coefficient < 1): to sell more the producer must cut price, and the percentage fall in price is greater than the percentage rise in quantity sold, so total revenue falls (e.g. farm produce in a bumper harvest). Illustrate with a steep demand curve or a numerical example (e.g. price falls from N10 to N5, quantity rises from 10 to 12: TR falls from N100 to N60).
(b) When demand is elastic (coefficient > 1): a small fall in price brings a more than proportionate rise in quantity sold, so total revenue rises. Illustrate with a flat demand curve or numbers (e.g. price falls from N10 to N8, quantity rises from 10 to 20: TR rises from N100 to N160).
(Also: if price stays constant, as for a perfect competitor, more output always raises revenue.)

Explanation

Link the effect on total revenue to the elasticity of demand.

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Theory question 104

Theory of Supply

(a) Define increase in supply.
(b) With the aid of diagrams, explain the effect of an increase in the supply of fish on the price of beef

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Model answer

(a) An increase in supply is when more of a commodity is offered for sale at each price because of a change in factors other than its own price (e.g. better technology, lower costs); the supply curve shifts to the right.
(b) Fish and beef are substitutes. Diagram 1 (fish market): supply shifts right from S0 to S1, so the price of fish falls and more fish is bought. Diagram 2 (beef market): consumers switch from beef to cheaper fish, so demand for beef shifts left from D0 to D1; the price of beef falls (and less beef is bought).

Explanation

Two diagrams: one for fish, one for beef, showing the shifts and new prices.

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Theory question 105

Theory of Demand

(a) What is the equilibrium of a consumer?
(b) Explain how a consumer attains equilibrium in spending his income.

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Model answer

(a) Consumer equilibrium is the position where a consumer, with a given income and given prices, gets the maximum total satisfaction and has no reason to change the way he spends his income.
(b) He spends his income so that the marginal utility per naira is the same for all goods: MUA/PA = MUB/PB = … and all his income is spent. If MU per naira is higher for one good, he buys more of it and less of the others until they are equal (equi-marginal principle). For one good, he buys until MU = price.

Explanation

State the equi-marginal condition and the budget constraint.

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Theory question 106

Theory of Production

(a) Explain with examples the following types of production: (i) Primary; (ii) Secondary; (iii) Tertiary.
(b) Give two reasons why primary production pre-dominates in developing countries.

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Model answer

(a)(i) Primary production: extracting resources directly from nature, e.g. farming, fishing, mining, lumbering.
(ii) Secondary production: changing raw materials into finished or semi-finished goods, e.g. manufacturing, construction, refining.
(iii) Tertiary production: providing services, e.g. trade, banking, transport, insurance, teaching, medicine.
(b) Any two: low level of technology; shortage of capital; abundant natural resources and land; low level of education and skills; small market for manufactured goods; colonial pattern of producing raw materials for export; poor infrastructure.

Explanation

Give an example with each type.

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Theory question 107

Business Organisations

(a) What is a partnership?
(b) State any two advantages and any two disadvantages of a partnership.

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Model answer

(a) A partnership is a business owned by two to twenty persons (up to fifty for professional firms) who contribute capital, share profits and losses, and run it under an agreement (partnership deed).
(b) Advantages (any two): more capital than a sole trader; division of labour and pooling of skills; shared risks and losses; easy to form; greater continuity.
Disadvantages (any two): unlimited liability (except limited partners); disagreements among partners; limited capital compared with companies; lack of continuity on death or withdrawal of a partner; slow decisions; shares cannot be transferred freely.

Explanation

Two of each, briefly explained.

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Theory question 108

Business Organisations

(a) What is privatization?
(b) Give four reasons for government participation in economic activities in your country.

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Model answer

(a) Privatization is the transfer of ownership and control of government-owned enterprises, wholly or partly, to private individuals or companies.
(b) Any four: to provide essential services that private firms cannot afford (e.g. power, railways); to control strategic industries (defence, oil); to prevent private monopoly and exploitation; to create employment; to ensure balanced development of all regions; to raise revenue; to protect national interest from foreign domination; to provide social welfare.

Explanation

Government enters areas where private investors cannot or should not operate alone.

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Theory question 109

Industrialisation

(a) Distinguish between location of industries and localization of industries.
(b) Describe any three advantages and any two disadvantages of locating industries in rural areas.

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Model answer

(a) Location of industry is the choice of a particular place where a firm sets up its factory. Localization of industry is the concentration of many firms of the same industry in one area (e.g. textile firms in one city).
(b) Advantages (any three): reduces rural-urban migration; creates employment in rural areas; brings development and amenities to rural areas; cheap land and labour; nearness to raw materials; reduces congestion and pollution in cities.
Disadvantages (any two): poor infrastructure (roads, power, water); far from markets; shortage of skilled labour; high transport costs; lack of banking and other services.

Explanation

Location is about one firm; localization is about many firms of one industry.

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Theory question 110

Money and Inflation

(a) Explain the function of money as a (i) measure of value; (ii) store of value.
(b) Show how inflation affects these two functions of money.

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Model answer

(a)(i) Measure of value (unit of account): money is used to express the value of all goods and services as prices, making comparison and accounting easy.
(ii) Store of value: money can be kept and used later to buy goods, since it does not perish.
(b) Measure of value: rising prices change the value of money constantly, so it no longer measures value accurately; prices must be revised often and comparisons over time become difficult.
Store of value: money loses purchasing power over time, so people prefer to hold real assets (land, buildings, goods) rather than money; savings lose value.

Explanation

Inflation weakens both functions because the value of money keeps falling.

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Theory question 111

Financial Institutions

(a) What is a commercial bank?
(b) Describe any four ways by which the Central Bank controls the amount of credit given by the commercial banks.

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Model answer

(a) A commercial bank is a profit-making financial institution that accepts deposits from the public, lends money and provides other services such as payment by cheque.
(b) Any four: open market operations (selling securities to reduce banks' cash); bank rate/monetary policy rate (raising the rate to make borrowing dearer); cash reserve ratio; liquidity ratio; special deposits; selective credit control (directing loans to priority sectors); moral suasion; credit ceilings.

Explanation

Explain how each tool reduces (or increases) banks' ability to lend.

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Theory question 112

Public Finance

(a) What is incidence of taxes?
(b) Explain any four principles of taxation.

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Model answer

(a) Incidence of tax is where the burden of a tax finally rests, i.e. the person who actually bears it.
(b) Any four (canons of taxation): equity – tax according to ability to pay; certainty – amount, time and method of payment known; convenience – collected at a time and in a manner convenient to taxpayers; economy – cost of collection low compared with yield; flexibility/elasticity – yield can be adjusted to needs; simplicity – easy to understand; productivity – yields enough revenue; neutrality.

Explanation

Adam Smith's four canons are equity, certainty, convenience and economy.

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