WAEC Biology 2007 past questions and answers

65 questions. Try each one, then open the answer to check yourself and read the explanation.

Question 1

Characteristics and Classification of Living Things

A change in the environment of an organism is termed

  1. A.sensitivity
  2. B.impulse
  3. C.response
  4. D.stimulus
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (stimulus)

Explanation

A stimulus is any change in the surroundings that an organism can detect; its reaction to it is the response.

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Question 2

Characteristics and Classification of Living Things

Organisms that interbreed to produce fertile offspring belong to the same

  1. A.class
  2. B.family
  3. C.species
  4. D.order
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (species)

Explanation

A species is a group of organisms that can breed together and produce fertile young.

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Question 3

Reproduction in Plants

The transfer of ripe pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower is termed

  1. A.fertilization
  2. B.self pollination
  3. C.reproduction
  4. D.conjugation
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (self pollination)

Explanation

Pollination within the same flower (or another flower on the same plant) is self pollination.

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Question 4

Cell Structure and Organisation

The hereditary material in a living organism is located inside the

  1. A.protein wall
  2. B.cytoplasm
  3. C.nucleus
  4. D.lysosome
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (nucleus)

Explanation

Chromosomes, which carry the genes (DNA), are found in the nucleus.

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Question 5

Respiration

Respiration is an essential life process providing the living cells with

  1. A.oxygen
  2. B.sugars
  3. C.energy
  4. D.carbon dioxide
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (energy)

Explanation

Respiration breaks down food in cells to release the energy the cell needs for its activities.

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Question 6

Cell Structure and Organisation

The organelle involved in the transport of substances within a cell is

  1. A.Golgi body
  2. B.endoplasmic reticulum
  3. C.ribosome
  4. D.mitochondrion
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (endoplasmic reticulum)

Explanation

The endoplasmic reticulum is a network of channels that carries materials such as proteins through the cytoplasm.

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Question 7

Cell and Its Environment

Which of the following processes takes place when a plant cell is put in a hypotonic solution?

  1. A.Water moves into the cell and the cell bursts
  2. B.Water leaves the cell and the cell becomes flabby
  3. C.Water moves into the cell and the cell becomes turgid
  4. D.The cell becomes plasmolysed
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Water moves into the cell and the cell becomes turgid)

Explanation

Water enters by osmosis, but the strong cell wall stops the plant cell from bursting, so it becomes firm (turgid).

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Question 9

Microorganisms and Health

Yeast is added to the dough during the preparation of bread because it produces

  1. A.ethanol
  2. B.heat
  3. C.carbon dioxide
  4. D.carbohydrate
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (carbon dioxide)

Explanation

Yeast ferments the sugar in the dough and gives off carbon dioxide gas, which makes the dough rise.

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Question 10

Growth and Development

Growth includes the following processes except

  1. A.differentiation
  2. B.enlargement
  3. C.mitosis
  4. D.meiosis
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (meiosis)

Explanation

Growth comes from mitosis, cell enlargement and differentiation; meiosis only produces gametes or spores.

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Question 11

Reproduction in Animals

Which of the following processes is a form of sexual reproduction?

  1. A.Budding by yeast cells
  2. B.Conjugation in Spirogyra
  3. C.Binary fission in Amoeba
  4. D.Rhizome production by ginger
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Conjugation in Spirogyra)

Explanation

In conjugation the contents of two Spirogyra cells (gametes) fuse to form a zygospore, which is sexual reproduction.

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Question 12

Characteristics and Classification of Living Things

The fine adjustment of the light microscope is used to

  1. A.admit more light into the microscope
  2. B.focus the object under low power
  3. C.focus the object under high power
  4. D.raise the stage upwards
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (focus the object under high power)

Explanation

The coarse adjustment focuses at low power; the fine adjustment makes the small, careful changes needed under high power.

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Question 13

Transport in Animals

Which of these statements about white blood cells is true? They

  1. A.aid clotting of blood
  2. B.carry oxygen round the body
  3. C.are the most numerous blood cells
  4. D.are large nucleated cells
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (are large nucleated cells)

Explanation

White blood cells are larger than red cells and have a nucleus; red cells carry oxygen and platelets help clotting.

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Question 14

Transport in Animals

Which of the following blood vessels have valves?

  1. A.Capillary
  2. B.Artery
  3. C.Vein
  4. D.Arteriole
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Vein)

Explanation

Blood in veins is under low pressure, so veins have valves to stop it flowing backwards.

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Question 15

Excretion

The malpighian body of the mammalian kidney is made up of

  1. A.cortex and medulla
  2. B.Bowman's capsule and loop of Henle
  3. C.glomerulus and Bowman's capsule
  4. D.pelvis and pyramid
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (glomerulus and Bowman's capsule)

Explanation

The malpighian body (renal corpuscle) is the glomerulus, a knot of capillaries, together with the Bowman's capsule around it.

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Question 16

Hormonal Coordination

The persistent presence of glucose in a person's urine indicates malfunctioning of the

  1. A.heart
  2. B.bladder
  3. C.pancreas
  4. D.stomach
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (pancreas)

Explanation

Glucose in urine is a sign of diabetes, caused when the pancreas does not make enough insulin.

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Question 17

Hormonal Coordination

The endocrine gland which co-ordinates the action of other glands and is also associated with the nervous system is the

  1. A.adrenal gland
  2. B.thyroid gland
  3. C.pituitary gland
  4. D.thymus gland
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (pituitary gland)

Explanation

The pituitary, the 'master gland', is joined to the hypothalamus of the brain and makes hormones that control other glands.

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Question 18

Hormonal Coordination

Insulin is produced by the

  1. A.adrenal gland
  2. B.gonads
  3. C.pituitary gland
  4. D.pancreas
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (pancreas)

Explanation

Insulin is made by the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.

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Question 19

Nervous Coordination

Which of the following statements about nerve cells is not correct?

  1. A.The axons relay impulses from the cell body
  2. B.The cell body is always found at the end of the neurone
  3. C.Each neurone has a cell body
  4. D.The dendrites of one neurone transmit impulses to the cell body
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (The cell body is always found at the end of the neurone)

Explanation

The cell body is not always at the end: in a sensory neurone it lies to one side, part way along the fibre.

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Question 20

Nervous Coordination

The smallest branches on the cell body of a neurone are called

  1. A.dendrites
  2. B.dendrons
  3. C.ganglia
  4. D.Schwan cells
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (dendrites)

Explanation

Fine branches from the cell body are dendrites; the larger branch they come from is a dendron.

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Question 21

Nervous Coordination

A neurone that transmits impulses directly from sensory cells is called

  1. A.an afferent neurone
  2. B.an efferent neurone
  3. C.a relay neurone
  4. D.a peripheral neurone
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (an afferent neurone)

Explanation

Afferent (sensory) neurones carry impulses from receptors towards the central nervous system.

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Question 22

Homeostasis

Protection of the body cells of mammals against ultra-violet rays of the sun is brought about by

  1. A.keratin
  2. B.melanin
  3. C.sebum
  4. D.scales
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (melanin)

Explanation

Melanin, the dark pigment in the skin, absorbs ultra-violet rays and shields deeper cells.

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Question 23

Reproduction in Animals

In which of the following organisms is parental care manifested?

  1. A.Tilapia
  2. B.Toad
  3. C.Cockroach
  4. D.Snail
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Tilapia)

Explanation

Tilapia guards its young and even shelters eggs and fry in its mouth; toads, cockroaches and snails abandon their eggs.

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Question 24

Respiration

The site for production of ATP in a cell is

  1. A.ribosome
  2. B.cytoplasm
  3. C.Golgi body
  4. D.mitochondrion
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (mitochondrion)

Explanation

Most ATP is made during aerobic respiration in the mitochondria, the 'powerhouse' of the cell.

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Question 25

Photosynthesis and Plant Nutrition

In testing for starch in a leaf, the leaf is boiled in alcohol to

  1. A.kill the cells
  2. B.soften the leaf
  3. C.enable chemicals penetrate the leaf
  4. D.decolourise the leaf
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (decolourise the leaf)

Explanation

Hot alcohol dissolves out the chlorophyll so that the blue-black iodine colour can be seen clearly.

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Question 26

Photosynthesis and Plant Nutrition

The mode of nutrition common to green plants is

  1. A.autotrophic
  2. B.heterotrophic
  3. C.holozoic
  4. D.saprophytic
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (autotrophic)

Explanation

Green plants make their own food by photosynthesis, which is autotrophic nutrition.

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Question 27

Photosynthesis and Plant Nutrition

Micronutrients essential for the synthesis of chlorophyll include

  1. A.iron and potassium
  2. B.iron and magnesium
  3. C.magnesium and calcium
  4. D.magnesium and potassium
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (iron and magnesium)

Explanation

Magnesium is part of the chlorophyll molecule and iron is needed to make it; lack of either causes yellow leaves (chlorosis).

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Question 28

Food Substances and Enzymes

Biuret's test is carried out on a food substance to indicate the presence of

  1. A.vitamins
  2. B.fats
  3. C.proteins
  4. D.starch
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (proteins)

Explanation

Biuret reagent turns purple or violet when protein is present.

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Question 29

Food Substances and Enzymes

In a test for non-reducing sugars like sucrose, what is the significance of adding dilute hydrochloric acid to the original sugar solution? To

  1. A.hydrolyse the non-reducing sugar
  2. B.accelerate the rate of the reaction
  3. C.stabilize the medium
  4. D.sterilize the solution
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (hydrolyse the non-reducing sugar)

Explanation

Boiling with acid breaks sucrose into glucose and fructose, which are reducing sugars that then react with Fehling's or Benedict's solution.

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Question 30

Food Substances and Enzymes

The colour that is associated with a positive iodine test is

  1. A.brown
  2. B.red
  3. C.blue-black
  4. D.yellow
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (blue-black)

Explanation

Iodine solution turns blue-black when starch is present.

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Question 31

Food Substances and Enzymes

Enzymes can be inactivated by certain chemical substances in the body called

  1. A.catalysts
  2. B.inhibitors
  3. C.substrates
  4. D.activators
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (inhibitors)

Explanation

Inhibitors are substances that slow down or stop enzyme action.

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Question 32

Food Substances and Enzymes

Which of the following enzymes is not one of the main classes of enzymes?

  1. A.Sucrase
  2. B.Amylases
  3. C.Proteases
  4. D.Lipases
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Sucrase)

Explanation

Amylases, proteases and lipases are whole classes of digestive enzymes; sucrase is one particular enzyme.

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Question 33

Food Substances and Enzymes

Use the following equations to answer the question:
I – Boiled saliva + starch → X
II – Fresh saliva + starch → Y
What substances do X and Y represent?

  1. A.X = Maltose and Y = Sugar
  2. B.X = Starch and Y = Maltose
  3. C.X = Sugar and Y = Starch
  4. D.X = Maltose and Y = Starch
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (X = Starch and Y = Maltose)

Explanation

Boiling destroys the amylase in saliva, so the starch stays unchanged (X); fresh saliva digests starch to maltose (Y).

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Question 34

Food Substances and Enzymes

Which of the following enzymes does not belong to proteases?

  1. A.Sucrase
  2. B.Pepsin
  3. C.Trypsin
  4. D.Erepsin
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Sucrase)

Explanation

Sucrase digests the sugar sucrose; pepsin, trypsin and erepsin all digest proteins or peptides.

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Question 35

Animal Nutrition

Which of the following protozoans feeds parasitically?

  1. A.Paramecium
  2. B.Chlamydomonas
  3. C.Plasmodium
  4. D.Euglena
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Plasmodium)

Explanation

Plasmodium, the malaria parasite, lives and feeds inside human liver and red blood cells.

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Question 36

Animal Nutrition

Which of the following features of the tadpole indicates that the animal is herbivorous? Possession of

  1. A.operculum
  2. B.muscular tail
  3. C.long coiled intestine
  4. D.internal gills
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (long coiled intestine)

Explanation

Plant food is hard to digest, so herbivores like tadpoles have a long, coiled intestine.

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Question 37

Ecosystem and Ecological Factors

The term community is defined as

  1. A.the different groups of plants and animals in the same area and interacting with each other
  2. B.the consumers and producers living in a habitat
  3. C.living organisms interacting with physical factors of an environment
  4. D.animals which mutually derive benefit from their association
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (the different groups of plants and animals in the same area and interacting with each other)

Explanation

A community is all the populations of plants and animals living in one area and interacting with one another.

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Question 38

Feeding Relationships and Energy Flow

Which of the following organisms are the producers in an aquatic habitat?

  1. A.Benthos
  2. B.Phytoplanktons
  3. C.Zooplanktons
  4. D.Nektons
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Phytoplanktons)

Explanation

Phytoplankton are tiny floating green plants and algae that photosynthesise, so they are the producers.

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Question 39

Ecosystem and Ecological Factors

Wind speed is measured with

  1. A.a maximum- minimum thermometer
  2. B.a hygrometer
  3. C.a wet and dry bulb hygrometer
  4. D.an anemometer
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (an anemometer)

Explanation

An anemometer has spinning cups whose rate of turning shows the wind speed.

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Question 40

Feeding Relationships and Energy Flow

The amount of energy passed from one trophic level to the next decreases because

  1. A.many organisms are present at the first trophic level
  2. B.many organisms occur at the higher trophic level
  3. C.more energy is conserved at lower trophic levels
  4. D.parts of the organisms remain unutilised at each trophic level
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (parts of the organisms remain unutilised at each trophic level)

Explanation

At each level much energy is lost: some parts are not eaten or digested, and much is used in respiration and lost as heat.

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Question 41

Feeding Relationships and Energy Flow

Which of these values in kj/m2 likely represents the energy content of the producers in a habitat?

  1. A.5033
  2. B.100
  3. C.12
  4. D.10
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (5033)

Explanation

Producers are at the base of the energy pyramid and hold far more energy than any consumer level, so the largest value fits.

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Question 42

Pollution

The major pollutant around airport residential areas is

  1. A.oil spillage
  2. B.soot
  3. C.noise
  4. D.dust
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (noise)

Explanation

Aircraft taking off and landing make very loud noise, so noise pollution is the main problem near airports.

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Question 43

Pollution

The effect of chlorofluorocarbon is

  1. A.reduction of oxygen concentration in the atmosphere
  2. B.depletion of the ozone layer
  3. C.screening of ultra violet rays
  4. D.increase in carbon dioxide concentration
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (depletion of the ozone layer)

Explanation

CFCs from old fridges and aerosol sprays break down ozone in the upper atmosphere, thinning the ozone layer.

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Question 44

Population Ecology

The order of primary succession by plants in a very dry habitat is

  1. A.xerophytes → mesophytes → shrub
  2. B.mesophytes → xerophytes → shrub
  3. C.mesophytes → shrub → xerophytes
  4. D.xerophytes → shrub → mesophytes
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (xerophytes → shrub → mesophytes)

Explanation

On dry bare ground, hardy xerophytes come first, then shrubs as soil builds up, and finally mesophytic trees form the climax.

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Question 45

Population Ecology

A population which exceeds its carrying capacity and then collapses is represented graphically as a

  1. A.bell shaped curve
  2. B.skewed curve
  3. C.s-shaped curve
  4. D.linear curve
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (bell shaped curve)

Explanation

The numbers rise sharply, overshoot what the environment can support and then crash, so the graph rises and falls like a bell.

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Question 46

Microorganisms and Health

Which of the following infections would not respond to an antibiotic treatment?

  1. A.Gonorrhoea
  2. B.Measles
  3. C.Diarrhoea
  4. D.Tuberculosis
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Measles)

Explanation

Measles is caused by a virus, and antibiotics act only on bacteria.

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Question 47

Microorganisms and Health

The vector of the sleeping sickness disease parasite is the

  1. A.cockroach
  2. B.mosquito
  3. C.black fly
  4. D.tse-tse fly
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (tse-tse fly)

Explanation

The tsetse fly carries Trypanosoma, the parasite of sleeping sickness, from person to person when it bites.

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Question 48

Nutrient Cycling

Which of the following bacteria lives in the root nodules of leguminous plants?

  1. A.Azotobacter
  2. B.Nitrobacter
  3. C.Rhizobium
  4. D.Nitrosomonas
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Rhizobium)

Explanation

Rhizobium lives in the root nodules of legumes and fixes nitrogen; Azotobacter is free-living.

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Question 49

Conservation of Natural Resources

Endangered species are organisms that ought to be

  1. A.hunted
  2. B.killed
  3. C.poached
  4. D.protected
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (protected)

Explanation

Endangered species are at risk of extinction, so they must be protected.

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Question 50

Conservation of Natural Resources

Which of the following substances is not a conservable natural resource?

  1. A.Minerals
  2. B.Air
  3. C.Soil
  4. D.Water
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Air)

Explanation

Air is present everywhere and cannot be stored or managed like minerals, soil and water, so it is the one not normally listed as conservable.

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Question 51

Conservation of Natural Resources

Which of the following actions do not reflect the objectives of conservation of natural resources?

  1. A.Protection of the ecosystem
  2. B.Saving some species from extinction
  3. C.Elimination of some wild animals to enable others survive
  4. D.Prevention of indiscriminate killing of organism
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Elimination of some wild animals to enable others survive)

Explanation

Conservation aims to protect all species; deliberately wiping some out goes against it.

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Question 52

Variation

Which of the following forms of variation will give a normal distribution?

  1. A.Blood groups
  2. B.Tongue rolling
  3. C.Body weight
  4. D.Finger prints
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Body weight)

Explanation

Body weight shows continuous variation; most people are near the average, giving a bell-shaped normal curve.

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Question 53

Mendelian Inheritance

Two tall plants were crossed; some of their offsprings were tall and others short the possible genotypes of the parent plants were

  1. A.TT and TT
  2. B.TT and tt
  3. C.Tt and Tt
  4. D.Tt and TT
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Tt and Tt)

Explanation

Short offspring (tt) need a t allele from each parent, so both tall parents must be heterozygous, Tt.

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Question 54

Mendelian Inheritance

The character that is manifested in an organism in the presence of a contrasting character is known as

  1. A.genotype
  2. B.phenotype
  3. C.recessive
  4. D.dominant
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (dominant)

Explanation

A dominant character shows itself even when the contrasting (recessive) allele is present.

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Question 55

Mendelian Inheritance

What is the probability of producing a child of blood group O by a woman of blood group O and a man of blood group A?

  1. A.25%
  2. B.50%
  3. C.75%
  4. D.100%
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (50%)

Explanation

An O child is possible only if the man is AO; then AO × OO gives AO and OO in equal numbers, so the chance is 50%.

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Question 56

Mendelian Inheritance

An albino man marries a normal woman (homozygous for skin pigmentation). What is the probability that the people could have an albino child?

  1. A.0%
  2. B.0.5%
  3. C.25%
  4. D.60%
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (0%)

Explanation

The woman (AA) gives only the normal allele, so every child is Aa: a carrier but normally pigmented.

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Question 57

Mendelian Inheritance

If a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant produced red-flowered plants, the result can be described as an example of

  1. A.partial recessiveness
  2. B.dominance
  3. C.incomplete dominance
  4. D.out-breeding
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (dominance)

Explanation

Only the red colour shows in the offspring, so red is dominant over white.

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Question 58

Mendelian Inheritance

Which of the following inherited conditions usually shows incomplete dominance?

  1. A.Sickle cell anaemia
  2. B.Haemophilia
  3. C.Tongue rolling ability
  4. D.Baldness
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Sickle cell anaemia)

Explanation

A sickle cell carrier (HbAS) shows a mild form of the condition (sickle cell trait), so neither allele fully hides the other.

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Question 59

Evolution

The theory of survival of the fittest was propounded by

  1. A.Darwin
  2. B.Lamarck
  3. C.Linnaeus
  4. D.Mendel
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Darwin)

Explanation

Survival of the fittest is part of Darwin's theory of natural selection.

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Question 60

Behaviour

A termite with a relatively large head and powerful jaws is likely to be a

  1. A.king
  2. B.queen
  3. C.soldier
  4. D.reproductive
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (soldier)

Explanation

Soldier termites have big heads and strong mandibles for defending the colony.

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Theory question 101

Plant Responses and Hormones

(a) In a tabular form, distinguish between tropic movements and nastic movements.
(b) Explain how light brings about tropic movement in the stem and root of a flowering plant.
(c) What would be observed when a growing seedling is placed horizontally?
(d) State five functions of the pituitary gland. (e) State two differences between growth in plants and growth in animals.

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Model answer

(a) Tropic vs nastic: growth movement vs not a growth movement (turgor change); response to a one-sided (directional) stimulus vs response to a diffuse (non-directional) stimulus; direction depends on the stimulus (positive or negative) vs direction does not; slow vs fast; not reversible vs reversible; e.g. shoot bending to light vs closing of Mimosa leaves.
(b) Auxin (IAA) is made at the shoot and root tips.
One-sided light causes auxin to move to the shaded side.
In the stem, the high auxin makes cells on the shaded side grow faster, so the stem bends towards light (positive phototropism).
In the root, high auxin slows growth, so the shaded side grows less and the root bends away from light (negative phototropism).
(c) Auxin collects on the lower side of root and shoot due to gravity; the shoot tip curves upwards (negative geotropism) and the root tip curves downwards (positive geotropism).
(d) Any five: produces growth hormone; stimulates the thyroid (TSH); stimulates the adrenal cortex (ACTH); FSH and LH control the ovaries and testes; prolactin starts milk production; oxytocin causes contraction of the uterus during birth; ADH controls water reabsorption in the kidney; controls other endocrine glands (master gland).
(e) Any two: plants grow at meristems (tips) only, animals grow all over; plant growth is indefinite (throughout life), animal growth stops at maturity; plants can grow by secondary thickening, animals cannot; plant growth is towards stimuli (tropic) in parts.

Explanation

Mention auxin redistribution in (b) and (c).

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Theory question 102

Food Substances and Enzymes

(a) What is a balanced diet?
(b) Name the classes of food stating the importance of any two to the human diet.
(c) In a tabular form, state the source, substrate and end products of the following enzymes:
(i) ptyalin; (ii) pepsin; (iii) lipase.

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Model answer

(a) A balanced diet is one that contains all the classes of food in the right amounts and proportions for the body's needs.
(b) Classes: carbohydrates, proteins, fats and oils, vitamins, mineral salts, water (and roughage).
Any two: carbohydrates – main source of energy; proteins – growth and repair of tissues, making enzymes and hormones; fats – energy store, insulation; vitamins – prevent deficiency diseases, help body processes; minerals – build bones and teeth (calcium), make haemoglobin (iron); water – solvent, transport, temperature control; roughage – prevents constipation.
(c) Ptyalin: source – salivary glands (saliva); substrate – starch; product – maltose.
Pepsin: source – gastric glands of stomach; substrate – proteins; product – peptones/polypeptides.
Lipase: source – pancreas (pancreatic juice) and intestinal glands; substrate – fats and oils; product – fatty acids and glycerol.

Explanation

Use a table with source, substrate, product columns.

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Theory question 103

Chromosomes, DNA and Sex Linkage

(a) Define the following terms:
(i) gene; (ii) gene mutation.
(b) Name two structures each of plants and animals where the following processes take place:
(i) mitosis; (ii) meiosis.
(c) State four advantages a farmer may hope to derive in cross-breeding two different breeds of cows.
(d) State three applications of the knowledge of genetics in medicine.

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Model answer

(a)(i) A gene is a unit of inheritance, a section of DNA on a chromosome that controls a particular characteristic and is passed from parents to offspring.
(ii) A gene mutation is a sudden, permanent change in the structure of a gene (its DNA), which may be inherited.
(b)(i) Mitosis – plants: root tip, shoot tip (apical meristem), cambium; animals: skin (Malpighian layer), bone marrow, wounded tissue, embryo.
(ii) Meiosis – plants: anthers, ovules (ovary); animals: testes, ovaries.
(c) Any four: higher milk yield; more and better meat; faster growth/early maturity; resistance to disease; tolerance of heat or poor feed; increased fertility; hybrid vigour.
(d) Any three: genetic counselling of couples (e.g. sickle cell); prevention of hereditary diseases; blood transfusion matching (blood groups); settling disputed paternity (blood groups, DNA tests); organ transplant matching; gene therapy; production of drugs such as insulin by genetic engineering.

Explanation

Name actual organs for (b).

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Theory question 104

Pollution

(a) (i) What is pollution? (ii) State four pollutants of water. (b) Describe the effects of each of the pollutants named on aquatic organisms.

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(a)(i) Pollution is the release of harmful substances or energy into the environment in amounts that damage living things or make the environment unpleasant or unsafe.
(ii) Any four: crude oil; sewage; industrial wastes/chemicals (heavy metals such as lead, mercury); fertilizers; pesticides/herbicides; hot water (thermal pollution); detergents; refuse/plastics.
(b) Effects (to match the pollutants named): oil – forms a film that stops oxygen dissolving, clogs gills and feathers, poisons organisms; sewage – decomposers use up oxygen so fish suffocate, spreads disease germs; fertilizers – cause eutrophication: algal bloom, then lack of oxygen and death of organisms; pesticides and heavy metals – poison organisms and build up along the food chain; hot water – lowers dissolved oxygen and kills sensitive organisms; detergents – froth reduces oxygen and harms gills; refuse/plastics – organisms get trapped or swallow them.

Explanation

Give an effect for each pollutant you list.

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Theory question 107

Reproduction in Animals

(a) (i) List five birth control methods. (ii) State five reasons why family planning is important to a nation.
(b) Make a drawing 8 to 10cm long of the reproductive system of a human female and label fully.

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(a)(i) Any five: condom; diaphragm/cap; contraceptive pills; injection/implants; intra-uterine device (IUD/loop); spermicides; rhythm (safe period) method; withdrawal; abstinence; tubal ligation; vasectomy.
(ii) Any five: controls population growth; allows parents to provide food, education and health care for their children; improves the health of mothers (spacing births); reduces strain on social amenities (schools, hospitals, housing); reduces unemployment and crime; helps economic development and better standard of living; reduces infant and maternal deaths.
(b) Front view, 8–10 cm, title, labels on ruled guidelines: ovaries, oviducts (Fallopian tubes), funnel with fimbriae, uterus, endometrium/uterine wall, cervix, vagina (and vulva).

Explanation

Drawing: front view, both ovaries and tubes.

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Theory question 108

Habitats and Biomes

(a) Describe the characteristic features of the vegetation of the tropical rain forest.
(b) Name two types of savanna found in Nigeria giving one example in each case of a town where they occur.
(c) Describe briefly three ways each by which animals in arid habitats are adapted to:
(i) drought; (ii) high temperatures

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(a) Dense, evergreen vegetation with many plant species; tall trees in three or more layers (strata) with emergents up to 40 m or more; closed canopy, so little light reaches the floor and there is little undergrowth; trees have buttress roots and straight trunks with smooth, thin bark; broad leaves with drip tips; many climbers (lianas) and epiphytes; hardwoods such as mahogany, iroko, obeche.
(b) Any two with a town: Guinea savanna – Ilorin, Oyo, Makurdi, Minna, Abuja; Sudan savanna – Kano, Sokoto, Katsina, Zaria; Sahel savanna – Maiduguri, Nguru; derived savanna – Ogbomosho, Enugu; montane – Jos plateau, Obudu.
(c)(i) Drought: produce dry faeces and very concentrated urine (uric acid); get water from food and from respiration (metabolic water); store fat/water (camel's hump); impermeable skin or scales reduce water loss; few sweat glands; some aestivate in the dry season.
(ii) High temperatures: burrow underground or hide in shade during the day; active at night (nocturnal); large ears or thin body parts radiate heat (e.g. fennec fox); light-coloured body reflects heat; tolerate a rise in body temperature; long legs keep the body away from the hot sand.

Explanation

Each savanna type needs one correct town.

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