WAEC Biology 1996 past questions and answers

60 questions. Try each one, then open the answer to check yourself and read the explanation.

Question 1

Cell Structure and Organisation

Which of the following levels of organisation in living things is in the correct sequence, starting from the most complex to the simplest?

  1. A.Tissue → cell → organ → system
  2. B.System → organ → tissue → cell
  3. C.Cell → tissue → system → organ
  4. D.Cell → tissue → organ → system
  5. E.Organ → system → tissue → cell
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (System → organ → tissue → cell)

Explanation

From most complex to simplest: system, organ, tissue, cell.

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Question 3

Cell Structure and Organisation

Which of the following is not a cell organelle?

  1. A.Golgi body
  2. B.Nucleus
  3. C.Fat droplets
  4. D.Ribosome
  5. E.Endoplasmic reticulum
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Fat droplets)

Explanation

Fat droplets are stored food (cell inclusions), not organelles with a job to do.

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Question 4

Characteristics and Classification of Living Things

One of the differences between plants and animals is that

  1. A.growth is indefinite in animals but definite in plants
  2. B.nutrition is autotrophic in plants but holophytic in animals
  3. C.in plants there are excretory systems but in animals waste products are stored away
  4. D.plants react slowly to external stimuli while animals react more quickly
  5. E.respiration takes place in animals but does not take place in plants
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (plants react slowly to external stimuli while animals react more quickly)

Explanation

Plants respond slowly (e.g. tropisms over days) while animals respond quickly using nerves and muscles.

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Question 5

Respiration

Which of the following are the final products of aerobic respiration?

  1. A.Water, carbondioxide and energy
  2. B.Pyruvic acid, carbondioxide and water
  3. C.Glucose, energy and urea
  4. D.Energy and carbondioxide
  5. E.Lactic acid, water and carbondioxide
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Water, carbondioxide and energy)

Explanation

Glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + energy.

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Question 6

Cell and Its Environment

Movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from a weaker solution to a stronger solution is known as

  1. A.transpiration
  2. B.diffusion
  3. C.active transport
  4. D.plasmolysis
  5. E.osmosis
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (osmosis)

Explanation

That is the definition of osmosis.

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Question 7

Cell Division

In which of the following structures will cells undergoing meiosis be seen?

  1. A.At the apices of stem and root
  2. B.In the cortex of the stem
  3. C.In the pallisade mesophyll of the leaf
  4. D.In the ovary of a flower
  5. E.In the root of a seedling
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (In the ovary of a flower)

Explanation

Meiosis makes gametes, so it happens in reproductive organs such as the ovary (and anther).

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Question 8

Plant Responses and Hormones

Which of these instruments can be used to perform an experiment on geotropism?

  1. A.Potometer
  2. B.Cup anemometer
  3. C.Klinostat
  4. D.Kymograph
  5. E.Sphygmomanometer
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Klinostat)

Explanation

A klinostat rotates a seedling slowly to cancel the effect of gravity.

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Question 9

Support and Movement

The thoracic vertebra differs from all the other vertebrae by the possession of

  1. A.long neural spine
  2. B.odontoid process
  3. C.vertebraterial canal
  4. D.Large centrum
  5. E.transverse processes
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (long neural spine)

Explanation

Thoracic vertebrae have a long backward-pointing neural spine (and facets for the ribs).

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Question 10

Support and Movement

Study the list below and use it to answer questions 10-12
The vertebral column of mammals consists of the following:
I. Lumbar vertebrae II. Thoracic vertebrae III. Caudal vertebrae IV. Cervical vertebrae V. Sacral vertebrae.
Which of the following are found immediately next to the skull?

  1. A.I
  2. B.II
  3. C.III
  4. D.IV
  5. E.V
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (IV)

Explanation

The cervical vertebrae (neck) are joined to the skull.

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Question 11

Support and Movement

The vertebral column of mammals consists of the following:
I. Lumbar vertebrae II. Thoracic vertebrae III. Caudal vertebrae IV. Cervical vertebrae V. Sacral vertebrae.
Which of the following articulates with the ribs?

  1. A.I
  2. B.II
  3. C.III
  4. D.IV
  5. E.V
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (II)

Explanation

The ribs are joined to the thoracic vertebrae.

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Question 12

Support and Movement

The vertebral column of mammals consists of the following:
I. Lumbar vertebrae II. Thoracic vertebrae III. Caudal vertebrae IV. Cervical vertebrae V. Sacral vertebrae.
Which of the following articulates with the pelvic girdle?

  1. A.V
  2. B.IV
  3. C.III
  4. D.II
  5. E.I
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (V)

Explanation

The sacral vertebrae are fused to the pelvic girdle. Note that the options run backwards, so V is option A.

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Question 13

Excretion

Which of the following is more concentrated in the blood within the renal artery than the blood within the renal vein?

  1. A.Urea
  2. B.Red blood cells
  3. C.Glucose
  4. D.Protein
  5. E.White blood cells
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Urea)

Explanation

The kidney removes urea, so blood leaving in the renal vein has less of it.

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Question 14

Transport in Animals

Which of the following statements about the lymphatic system is not correct?

  1. A.The lymph vessels are always larger in size than the arteries
  2. B.The flow of lymph is assisted by general muscular movement
  3. C.Lymph flows only in one direction due to the presence of valves
  4. D.Lymph is emptied into the blood circulatory system through a vein
  5. E.Lymph node becomes swollen during serious infections
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (The lymph vessels are always larger in size than the arteries)

Explanation

Lymph vessels are not always larger than arteries; many are tiny.

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Question 15

Excretion

In which of the following groups is nephridium found?

  1. A.Crustaceans
  2. B.Reptiles
  3. C.Birds
  4. D.Mammals
  5. E.Annelids
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (Annelids)

Explanation

Annelids such as the earthworm excrete with nephridia.

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Question 16

Homeostasis

The maintenance of a constant internal environment of an organism is known as

  1. A.homeostasis
  2. B.homeorhesis
  3. C.turgidity
  4. D.homoiothermy
  5. E.diuresis
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (homeostasis)

Explanation

Homeostasis keeps internal conditions steady.

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Question 17

Soil

Which of the following is the effect of continuous tillage on an ecological system?

  1. A.Addition of more humus to the soil
  2. B.Decrease in productivity
  3. C.Increase in yield
  4. D.Improved fertility
  5. E.Prevention of erosion
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Decrease in productivity)

Explanation

Continuous tillage breaks down soil structure and humus and encourages erosion, so productivity falls.

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Question 18

Sense Organs

The most sensitive part of the retina is called

  1. A.blindspot
  2. B.conjuctiva
  3. C.fovea centralis
  4. D.choroid coat
  5. E.sclerotic coat
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (fovea centralis)

Explanation

The fovea centralis (yellow spot) has the most cones.

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Question 19

Reproduction in Animals

Which of the following pairs consists of gametes?

  1. A.Ova and spermatozoa
  2. B.Spores and sporangium
  3. C.Flowers and pollen grains
  4. D.Testes and ovaries
  5. E.Gametophyte and sporophyte
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Ova and spermatozoa)

Explanation

Ova and sperms are the female and male gametes.

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Question 20

Reproduction in Animals

The above is the drawing of a mammalian spermatozoan. Use it to answer questions 20 to 22
Which of the labelled structures is the nucleus?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.I
  2. B.II
  3. C.III
  4. D.IV
  5. E.V
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (II)

Explanation

II points to the dark nucleus inside the head.

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Question 21

Reproduction in Animals

Use the drawing of a mammalian spermatozoan (parts labelled I to V).
Which of the following labelled structures secretes enzymes which facilitate penetration of the egg?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.I
  2. B.II
  3. C.III
  4. D.IV
  5. E.V
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (I)

Explanation

I is the acrosome at the tip of the head, which releases enzymes to dissolve a way into the egg.

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Question 22

Reproduction in Animals

Use the drawing of a mammalian spermatozoan (parts labelled I to V).
Which of the following labelled structures is similar to the locomotory structure in Euglena?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.I
  2. B.II
  3. C.III
  4. D.IV
  5. E.V
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (V)

Explanation

V is the tail, a flagellum like that of Euglena.

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Question 23

Growth and Development

Study the diagrams below and use them to answer questions 23 to 25
The part labelled I in A represents the

Diagram for this question
  1. A.root
  2. B.radicle
  3. C.hypocotyl
  4. D.shoot
  5. E.stem
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (hypocotyl)

Explanation

In epigeal germination the hypocotyl arches up out of the soil, pulling the cotyledons with it.

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Question 24

Growth and Development

Study the diagrams of seedlings A and B (parts labelled I and II).
The part labelled II represents the

Diagram for this question
  1. A.root
  2. B.epicotyl
  3. C.hypocotyl
  4. D.cotyledon
  5. E.hilum
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (cotyledon)

Explanation

II is the flat seed leaf below the first foliage leaves: a cotyledon (I is the epicotyl above it).

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Question 25

Growth and Development

Study the diagrams of seedlings A and B (parts labelled I and II).
What is the importance of the part labelled II to the seedling? It

Diagram for this question
  1. A.protects the foliage leaves
  2. B.grows into the first foliage leaves
  3. C.later develops into the fruit
  4. D.provides the seedling with food
  5. E.serves as the water reservoir for the seedling
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (provides the seedling with food)

Explanation

Cotyledons hold stored food for the young seedling (and photosynthesise for a while after emerging).

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Question 26

Animal Nutrition

In grasshopper/cockroach digestion starts from the

  1. A.oesophagus
  2. B.crop
  3. C.gizzard
  4. D.midgut
  5. E.mouth
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (mouth)

Explanation

Salivary glands pour saliva on the food in the mouth, so digestion starts there.

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Question 27

Photosynthesis and Plant Nutrition

In a water culture experiment, the culture solution in a transparent beaker turned green. What precaution should have been taken to prevent the culture solution from turning green?

  1. A.Changing the culture solution regularly
  2. B.Increasing the number of times the culture is aerated
  3. C.Covering the transparent beaker with black cloth
  4. D.Adding warm alcohol to bleach the green colour
  5. E.Sterilizing the beaker in a hot oven before use
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Covering the transparent beaker with black cloth)

Explanation

Green algae grew in the light; covering the beaker keeps light out so algae cannot grow.

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Question 28

Nutrient Cycling

Which of the following is responsible for the conversion of nitrites to nitrates in the nitrogen cycle?

  1. A.Denitrifying bacteria
  2. B.Nitrifying bacteria
  3. C.Lightening
  4. D.Fungi
  5. E.Brown algae
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Nitrifying bacteria)

Explanation

Nitrifying bacteria (Nitrobacter) turn nitrites into nitrates.

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Question 29

Animal Nutrition

Hydra captures small crustaceans by means of

  1. A.pseudopodia
  2. B.musculo-epithelial cells
  3. C.tentacles
  4. D.enteron
  5. E.ectoderm
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (tentacles)

Explanation

Hydra's tentacles, armed with stinging cells, catch the prey.

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Question 30

Ecosystem and Ecological Factors

Which of the following processes is not due to interaction between the biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem?

  1. A.Soil nutrient depletion
  2. B.Condensation
  3. C.Decomposition
  4. D.Osmosis
  5. E.Photosynthesis
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Condensation)

Explanation

Condensation of water vapour is a purely physical process that needs no living thing.

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Question 31

Ecosystem and Ecological Factors

The entire habits and habitat of an organism can be described as its

  1. A.ecological community
  2. B.ecological niche
  3. C.habitat factor
  4. D.biotic factor
  5. E.abiotic factor
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (ecological niche)

Explanation

An organism's niche is its place and its way of life in the ecosystem.

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Question 32

Habitats and Biomes

Which of these is not a true characteristic of the tropical rain forest?

  1. A.Vegetation consists predominantly of tall trees, with thick canopy
  2. B.Forest is rich in epipphysis and climbers
  3. C.Annual rainfall is less than 100 cm
  4. D.Interior has low light intensity, high humidity and damp floor
  5. E.Fruits of trees are often large-sized and are generally without adaptation to wind dispersal
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Annual rainfall is less than 100 cm)

Explanation

Rainforests get very high rainfall, usually over 200 cm a year.

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Question 33

Population Ecology

The frequency of andropogon in a grass lawn is 90 100. Throws were made with 1 meter square quadrat. What is the density of andropogon in the field?

  1. A.0.09 per m2
  2. B.090 per m2
  3. C.9.0 per m2
  4. D.90 per m2
  5. E.900 per m2
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (090 per m2)

Explanation

Reading the data as 90 plants found in 100 throws of a 1 m² quadrat, density = 90 ÷ 100 m² = 0.90 per m².

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Question 34

Soil

Which of the following is the correct method of collecting soil organism?

  1. A.Heating the soil sample in an oven
  2. B.Aerating the soil sample
  3. C.Refrigerating the soil for some hours
  4. D.Pouring hot water on the soil to enable the organism float
  5. E.Placing a lighted electric bulb over soil in a funnel
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (Placing a lighted electric bulb over soil in a funnel)

Explanation

In a Tullgren funnel the bulb's heat and light drive small organisms down through a sieve into a collecting jar.

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Question 35

Feeding Relationships and Energy Flow

Which of these groups of organisms is responsible for capturing energy for the biotic community?

  1. A.Decompcsers
  2. B.Omnivores
  3. C.Consumers
  4. D.Producers
  5. E.Detritus feeders
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Producers)

Explanation

Producers (green plants) trap the sun's energy in photosynthesis.

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Question 36

Feeding Relationships and Energy Flow

The following are pathways of energy in the biosphere:
I. Heat energy is lost from body metabolism to the surrounding air II. Energy passes to decomposers and parasites III. Energy is transferred to the next higher level in a food chain IV. Energy is also passed by conduction to clothing and other objects
Use the pathways to answer questions 36 and 37
Which pathway directly leads to transfer of useful energy within a biological community?

  1. A.I only
  2. B.II and III only
  3. C.I and III only
  4. D.I and II only
  5. E.IV only
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (II and III only)

Explanation

Energy passed to decomposers and parasites (II) and up the food chain (III) stays in living things; heat lost to air or objects is wasted.

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Question 37

Feeding Relationships and Energy Flow

The following are pathways of energy in the biosphere:
I. Heat energy is lost from body metabolism to the surrounding air II. Energy passes to decomposers and parasites III. Energy is transferred to the next higher level in a food chain IV. Energy is also passed by conduction to clothing and other objects
Which of the following pathways will energy follow to reach plasmodium in the red blood cells?

  1. A.I, II and III
  2. B.I and II
  3. C.II only
  4. D.III and IV
  5. E.IV and I
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (II only)

Explanation

Plasmodium is a parasite, so it gets energy by pathway II.

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Question 38

Ecological Associations

What type of relationship exists in the large intestine of the sheep, between bacteria and the sheep?

  1. A.Symbiosis
  2. B.Commensalism
  3. C.Predation
  4. D.Parasitism
  5. E.Saprophytism
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Symbiosis)

Explanation

The bacteria digest cellulose for the sheep and get food and shelter: both gain.

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Question 39

Soil

The Tulgren's funnel is used to

  1. A.extract minute soil organisms
  2. B.measure the amount of rainfall
  3. C.collect water from habitats
  4. D.pour liquid inot containers with narrow mouth
  5. E.measure the volume of heavy liquids
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (extract minute soil organisms)

Explanation

A Tullgren funnel uses a lamp to drive small organisms out of a soil sample into a collecting bottle.

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Question 40

Habitats and Biomes

Which of the following is not an aquatic habitat?

  1. A.Estuaries
  2. B.Ponds
  3. C.Rainforest
  4. D.Swamp
  5. E.Salt lake
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Rainforest)

Explanation

A rainforest is a land (terrestrial) habitat.

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Question 41

Ecosystem and Ecological Factors

Which of these materials is not required for insect collection in an ecological field-trip?

  1. A.Pooter
  2. B.Secchi disc
  3. C.Spreading board
  4. D.Jar containing alcohol
  5. E.Sweep net
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Secchi disc)

Explanation

A Secchi disc measures how clear (turbid) water is.

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Question 42

Ecosystem and Ecological Factors

The factors which determine the type of vegetation a particular habitat will support are related to the following except

  1. A.nature of the soil particles
  2. B.amount of rainfall
  3. C.mineral content of the soil
  4. D.farming activities
  5. E.depth of the water-table
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (farming activities)

Explanation

Natural vegetation is set by climate and soil, including how deep the water table is; farming activities are human, not natural, factors.

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Question 43

Population Ecology

Which of the following statements is not true of population?

  1. A.Members of a population may be of the same species
  2. B.Members of a population may be of the same species but do not interbreed
  3. C.Size of a population may be limited by space
  4. D.Some species can form another population elsewhere
  5. E.Members of a population must co-exist
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Members of a population may be of the same species but do not interbreed)

Explanation

Members of a population are of one species and can interbreed.

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Question 44

Population Ecology

Which of the following is an abiotic factor which affects a population?

  1. A.Predator
  2. B.Parasite
  3. C.Consumer
  4. D.Producer
  5. E.Temperature
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (Temperature)

Explanation

Temperature is non-living; the others are living things.

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Question 45

Microorganisms and Health

One of the ecological conditions which favour the spread of malaria is

  1. A.improper disposal of decaying organic matter
  2. B.clearing bushes around dwelling houses
  3. C.presence of water weeds
  4. D.presence of stagnant water in ponds
  5. E.improper disposal of sewage into the sea
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (presence of stagnant water in ponds)

Explanation

Mosquitoes breed in stagnant water.

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Question 46

Conservation of Natural Resources

Which of the following resources is non-renewable?

  1. A.Livestock
  2. B.Minerals
  3. C.Forest
  4. D.Soil
  5. E.Air
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Minerals)

Explanation

Minerals cannot be replaced once mined.

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Question 47

Conservation of Natural Resources

The following are the effects of overgrazing except

  1. A.depletion of useful fodder crops
  2. B.Soil and wind erosion of pastureland
  3. C.epidermic of cattle diseases
  4. D.migration of herdsmen
  5. E.scarcity of good pastureland
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (epidermic of cattle diseases)

Explanation

Overgrazing removes grass and causes erosion; it does not itself cause disease outbreaks.

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Question 49

Conservation of Natural Resources

The need for conservation incudes the following except to

  1. A.keep natural resources for future generations
  2. B.preserve them for scientific and recreational purposes
  3. C.maximise the use of natural resources
  4. D.make sure the natural resources are not used
  5. E.ensure that everybody benefits from the natural resources
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (make sure the natural resources are not used)

Explanation

Conservation means using resources wisely, not refusing to use them.

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Question 50

Variation

Which of these is not a hereditary variation?

  1. A.Infant paralysis
  2. B.Blood group
  3. C.Sickle cell
  4. D.Shape of face and nose
  5. E.Colour of hair
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Infant paralysis)

Explanation

Infant paralysis (polio) is caused by a virus, not inherited.

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Question 51

Chromosomes, DNA and Sex Linkage

Which of these statements is correct?

  1. A.Recombination at fertilization does not occur between two homologous chromosome
  2. B.In homologous chromosome two genes very close to each other are more likely to form recombinants at meiotic prophase I
  3. C.A dominant gene masks the presence of a recessive gene
  4. D.Meiosis leads to the formation of daughter cells with diploid chromosome number
  5. E.Mitosis increases variation within a population
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (A dominant gene masks the presence of a recessive gene)

Explanation

In a heterozygote the dominant allele hides the effect of the recessive one.

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Question 52

Mendelian Inheritance

One of Mendel's experiments was repeated by crossing a red variety of pepper with that of a yellow variety which produced all red offspring. The red offspring were then self pollinated and these produced both red and yellow pepper. The yellow colour can be said to be

  1. A.dominant to red
  2. B.recessive to red
  3. C.homozygous to red
  4. D.heterozygous to red
  5. E.linked to red
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (recessive to red)

Explanation

Yellow disappeared in F₁ and reappeared in F₂, so it is recessive.

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Question 53

Chromosomes, DNA and Sex Linkage

Which of the following statements is not true about chromosomes?

  1. A.Each chromosome is made up of two chromatids
  2. B.Body cells have diploid numbers of chromosomes
  3. C.Homologous chromosomes do not occur in pairs naturally
  4. D.The sex cells have haploid number of chromosomes
  5. E.Chromosomes have many tranverse bands
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Homologous chromosomes do not occur in pairs naturally)

Explanation

Homologous chromosomes always occur in pairs in body cells.

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Question 54

Mendelian Inheritance

Cross-breeding is a way of

  1. A.developing superior varieties of plants only
  2. B.developing superior varieties of animals only
  3. C.developing disease-resistant varieties only
  4. D.encouraging random reproduction in agriculture
  5. E.applying the principles of heredity in agriculture
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (applying the principles of heredity in agriculture)

Explanation

Cross-breeding uses knowledge of heredity to combine good characters in both plants and animals.

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Question 56

Behaviour

Which of the following is a social insect?

  1. A.Mosquito
  2. B.Butterfly
  3. C.Honey bee
  4. D.Grasshopper
  5. E.Cockroach
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Honey bee)

Explanation

Honey bees live in organised colonies with castes.

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Question 57

Evolution

The phenomenon whereby some organisms get established in an environment after struggling for existence by taking advantage of some special features possessed by the organism is called

  1. A.partial selection
  2. B.artificial selection
  3. C.natural selection
  4. D.mutation
  5. E.competition
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (natural selection)

Explanation

Organisms with helpful features survive the struggle and become established: natural selection.

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Question 58

Evolution

The statements below are about evolution of species
I. Members of a species vary II. Organisms produce many offspring III. The mechanism of evolution is inheritance of acquired characters IV. Changes in the phenotype is brought about by the individual itself
Which of the statement(s) is/are related to the Darwin's theory of evolution?

  1. A.I only
  2. B.II only
  3. C.I, II and IV
  4. D.I and II only
  5. E.II and IV only
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (I and II only)

Explanation

Variation (I) and over-production of offspring (II) are Darwin's ideas; III and IV are Lamarck's.

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Question 59

Evolution

Which of the following fields of study may not yield strong evidence of evolution?

  1. A.Fossil
  2. B.Histology
  3. C.Ecology
  4. D.Genetics
  5. E.Cytology
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Ecology)

Explanation

Fossils, tissue and cell studies and genetics compare organisms' structure and inheritance; ecology studies organisms and their surroundings.

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Theory question 101

Cell Structure and Organisation

(a) State two advantages of complex structural organisation in higher organisms
(b) (i) List two differences between colonial organisms and filamentous organisms (ii) Give one example each of a colonial organism and a filamentous organism
(c) Make a labelled diagram 10-12cm long to show the structure of a named filamentous alga.

Show the model answer
Model answer

(a) Any two: division of labour – cells specialised for particular jobs work more efficiently; larger size possible; better adaptation to varied environments; internal environment controlled (homeostasis); organs and systems allow faster transport and coordination
(b)(i) Colonial: cells grouped in a ball/cluster; cells often similar and can live independently; some division of labour (e.g. reproductive cells in Volvox); Filamentous: cells joined end to end in a chain; all cells similar; little or no division of labour
(ii) Colonial – Volvox (or Pandorina); filamentous – Spirogyra (or Ulothrix, Oedogonium)
(c) Spirogyra, 10–12 cm drawing with title: cell wall, mucilage layer, spiral chloroplast(s), pyrenoids, nucleus held by cytoplasmic strands, large vacuole, cross wall between cells

Explanation

Give the drawing a title and keep it the required size.

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Theory question 102

Homeostasis

(a) Describe the process of osmoregulation in (i) a named unicellular organism (ii) man
(b) Describe how the mammalian skin can react to regulate the body temperature in a hot room

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Model answer

(a)(i) Amoeba (freshwater): water enters continuously by osmosis because its cytoplasm is more concentrated than the surroundings; the contractile vacuole collects the excess water, swells, moves to the surface and bursts, expelling the water; this repeats, so the cell does not burst
(ii) Man: osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect the water content of blood; if blood is too concentrated the pituitary releases more ADH, the distal tubules and collecting ducts reabsorb more water and little concentrated urine is made; thirst makes the person drink; if blood is too dilute less ADH is released and much dilute urine is passed; salts are also regulated by the kidney (aldosterone)
(b) Vasodilation – skin arterioles widen, more blood flows near the surface and loses heat by radiation; sweat glands produce more sweat, whose evaporation takes latent heat from the skin; hair erector muscles relax so hairs lie flat and trap little air; metabolic rate falls

Explanation

Name the organism in (a)(i) before describing it.

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Theory question 103

Ecological Associations

(a) What is meant by competition
(b) Explain briefly the terms (i) inter-species competition (ii) intra-species competition
(c) Explain two ways each by which the toad/frog is structurally adapted to the following: (i) obtaining food; (ii) protection; (iii) movement.

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Model answer

(a) Competition is the struggle between organisms for resources that are in limited supply (food, water, light, space, mates)
(b)(i) Inter-species competition: between members of different species for the same resource, e.g. goats and cattle for grass
(ii) Intra-species competition: between members of the same species, e.g. maize plants in an overcrowded farm for light and nutrients; usually more severe because their needs are identical
(c)(i) Food: long sticky tongue attached at the front of the mouth, flicked out to catch insects; wide mouth; protruding eyes for spotting prey; small teeth on upper jaw to grip prey
(ii) Protection: colour of skin matches surroundings (camouflage); skin glands secrete poisonous/distasteful substances (toad's parotid glands); eyes on top of the head see danger while body is under water; slimy skin
(iii) Movement: long, strong hind limbs for jumping; webbed hind feet for swimming; short fore limbs absorb landing shock; streamlined body

Explanation

Give two separate structures for each of the three headings.

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Theory question 104

Mendelian Inheritance

(a) List three transmittable characters in (i) human beings (ii) plants
(b) State three ways in which genetics has contributed to improvement of agriculture
(c) A homozygous tall parent was crossed with a homozygous short parent. The offspring in F1 generation were all tall. An offspring of F1 generation was then crossed with another homozygous short individual (i) Illustrate the crosses with suitable diagrams (ii) What is the phenotypic ratio of offspring in the F2 generation? (iii) What is the genotypic ratio of offspring in the F2 generation?
(d) What is the probability that an individual that has genotype Tt will produce a gamete with T gene? Briefly explain your answer.

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Model answer

(a)(i) Any three: blood group, skin colour, height, eye colour, tongue rolling, sickle cell trait, albinism
(ii) Any three: flower colour, seed shape, plant height, fruit size/colour, disease resistance
(b) Any three: breeding high-yielding varieties; disease- and pest-resistant crops and animals; early-maturing varieties; drought-tolerant varieties; better quality products (e.g. more milk, meat, eggs); hybrid vigour from cross-breeding
(c)(i) Let T = tall, t = short; parents TT × tt; gametes T and t; F₁ all Tt (tall)
Back-cross: Tt × tt; gametes T, t × t; offspring Tt, Tt, tt, tt
(ii) Phenotypic ratio: 1 tall : 1 short
(iii) Genotypic ratio: 1 Tt : 1 tt
(d) Probability = 1/2 (50%): during meiosis the two alleles separate (segregate) into different gametes, so half the gametes carry T and half carry t

Explanation

Show parents, gametes and offspring for both crosses, with a key.

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