WAEC Biology 1993 past questions and answers

62 questions. Try each one, then open the answer to check yourself and read the explanation.

Question 1

Viruses, Monera, Protista and Fungi

The organ which is sensitive to light in Euglena is the

  1. A.gullet
  2. B.chloroplast
  3. C.eye spot
  4. D.contractile vacuole
  5. E.flagellum
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (eye spot)

Explanation

The red eye spot shades a light-sensitive swelling that lets Euglena swim towards light.

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Question 2

Cell Structure and Organisation

Which of the following is a similarity between a typical animal cell and a typical plant cell? Presence of

  1. A.cellulose cell wall
  2. B.chlorophyll
  3. C.centrally-placed nucleus
  4. D.cell membrane
  5. E.large vacuole
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (cell membrane)

Explanation

Both kinds of cell have a cell membrane; cell wall, chlorophyll and a large vacuole are found only in plant cells.

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Question 3

Cell Structure and Organisation

The first scientist to describe the cell was

  1. A.Theodor Schwann
  2. B.Felix Dujardin
  3. C.Robert Hooke
  4. D.Charles Darwin
  5. E.Matthias Schleiden
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Robert Hooke)

Explanation

Robert Hooke first described cells in cork in 1665.

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Question 4

Cell Structure and Organisation

In which of the following parts of a cell is the chromosome found?

  1. A.Nucleus
  2. B.Golgi body
  3. C.Cytoplasm
  4. D.Cell membrane
  5. E.Cell wall
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Nucleus)

Explanation

Chromosomes are found in the nucleus.

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Question 5

Respiration

Use the diagram below to answer questions 5 to 8
The part labelled VII is the

Diagram for this question
  1. A.pleural cavity
  2. B.lung
  3. C.rib
  4. D.diaphragm
  5. E.intercostal muscle
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (diaphragm)

Explanation

VII is the dome-shaped sheet at the floor of the chest: the diaphragm.

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Question 6

Respiration

Use the diagram of the human thorax (parts labelled I to VII) to answer this question.
The part labelled I is the

Diagram for this question
  1. A.epiglottis
  2. B.larynx
  3. C.oesophagus
  4. D.trachea
  5. E.bronchus
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (larynx)

Explanation

I points to the top of the windpipe, the larynx.

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Question 7

Respiration

Use the diagram of the human thorax (parts labelled I to VII) to answer this question.
Exchange of gases takes place in the air sacs contained in the part labelled

Diagram for this question
  1. A.I
  2. B.II
  3. C.IV
  4. D.V
  5. E.VI
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (IV)

Explanation

The air sacs (alveoli) are inside the lungs, labelled IV.

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Question 9

Hormonal Coordination

Which of the following diseases is caused by deficiency of insulin in the body?

  1. A.Malaria
  2. B.Diabetes mellitus
  3. C.Hepatitis
  4. D.Gonorrhoea
  5. E.Cholera
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Diabetes mellitus)

Explanation

Without enough insulin, blood sugar rises and spills into the urine: diabetes mellitus.

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Question 10

Transport in Animals

Which of the following is the medium of transportation of nutrients within unicellular organisms?

  1. A.Blood
  2. B.Serum
  3. C.Protoplasm
  4. D.Plasma
  5. E.Lymph
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Protoplasm)

Explanation

A single cell has no blood; materials move through its protoplasm (cytoplasm).

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Question 11

Transport in Animals

Which of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood into the heart?

  1. A.Pulmonary vein
  2. B.Anterior vena cava
  3. C.Pulmonary artery
  4. D.Aorta
  5. E.Posterior vena cava
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Pulmonary vein)

Explanation

The pulmonary vein brings oxygenated blood from the lungs into the left auricle.

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Question 12

Respiration

The conditions that ensure successful exchange of gases in multicellular organisms include the following except

  1. A.concentration gradient across the respiratory surface
  2. B.presence of thin membrane as the respiratory surface
  3. C.last transportation of absorbed gases
  4. D.presence of large surface area of the respiratory organ
  5. E.presence of small, dry surface area of the respiratory organ
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (presence of small, dry surface area of the respiratory organ)

Explanation

Respiratory surfaces must be large and moist; a small dry surface would not work.

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Question 13

Respiration

The respiratory organ found in the cockroach is the

  1. A.air sac
  2. B.trachea
  3. C.lung book
  4. D.lung
  5. E.gill
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (trachea)

Explanation

Insects breathe through a system of tubes called tracheae, opening at spiracles.

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Question 14

Excretion

Which of the following structures functions as an excretory system found in flatworm?

  1. A.Contractile vacuole
  2. B.Nephridium
  3. C.Flame cell
  4. D.Malpighian tubule
  5. E.Kidney
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Flame cell)

Explanation

Flatworms such as Planaria excrete with flame cells.

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Question 15

Excretion

Which of the following organs is associated with deamination of proteins?

  1. A.Lung
  2. B.Stomach
  3. C.Kidney
  4. D.Liver
  5. E.Heart
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Liver)

Explanation

Excess amino acids are deaminated in the liver.

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Question 16

Excretion

Ultrafiltration in the kidney takes place in the

  1. A.loop of Henle
  2. B.renal vein
  3. C.Bowman's capsule
  4. D.pelvis
  5. E.pyramid
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Bowman's capsule)

Explanation

Blood is filtered under pressure from the glomerulus into Bowman's capsule.

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Question 17

Nervous Coordination

When an axon is at rest, the concentration of ions on either side of the membrane are different. Which of the following is correct about the concentrations of ions on either side of the membrane?

  1. A.There is an excess of potassium ions inside the axon and an excess of sodium ions outside
  2. B.The inside of the axon becomes positively charged while the outside is negatively charged
  3. C.There is an excess of sodium ions on the inner side of the axon
  4. D.Chloride and potassium ions begin to move across the membrane
  5. E.Calcium ions accumulate on the inner side of the axon
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (There is an excess of potassium ions inside the axon and an excess of sodium ions outside)

Explanation

At rest the sodium pump keeps more K⁺ inside and more Na⁺ outside the axon.

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Question 18

Sense Organs

The groups of sensory cells found on the upper surface of the tongue are called

  1. A.ampullae
  2. B.taste buds
  3. C.nerve cells
  4. D.somatic cells
  5. E.tactile cells
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (taste buds)

Explanation

Taste buds are clusters of taste-receptor cells on the tongue.

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Question 19

Sense Organs

Use the diagram below to answer questions 19 and 20
Which type of eye defect is illustrated in the diagram above?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.Hypermetropia
  2. B.Myopia
  3. C.Cataract
  4. D.Astigmatism
  5. E.Glaucoma
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Hypermetropia)

Explanation

In the diagram the rays come to a focus behind the retina. This is long sight (hypermetropia), caused by a short eyeball or a weak lens.

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Question 20

Sense Organs

Use the diagram of the eye defect (questions 19 and 20).
This defect can be corrected by the use of

Diagram for this question
  1. A.convex lens
  2. B.concave lens
  3. C.cylindrical lens
  4. D.surgical operation
  5. E.biconcave lens
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (convex lens)

Explanation

Long sight is corrected with converging (convex) lenses.

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Question 21

Behaviour

Which of the following is not a courtship behaviour exhibited by animals?

  1. A.Pairing
  2. B.Display
  3. C.Seasonal migration
  4. D.Hibernation
  5. E.Territorialism
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Hibernation)

Explanation

Hibernation is a winter resting state, not part of courtship.

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Question 22

Photosynthesis and Plant Nutrition

Which of the following mineral salts is a trace element?

  1. A.Zinc
  2. B.Carbon
  3. C.Hydrogen
  4. D.Potassium
  5. E.Calcium
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Zinc)

Explanation

Zinc is needed only in tiny amounts, so it is a trace element.

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Question 23

Nutrient Cycling

Which of the following organisms reduces nitrates in the soil to gaseous nitrogen?

  1. A.Euglena
  2. B.Protozoan
  3. C.Denitrifying bacterium
  4. D.Parasitic mould
  5. E.Nitrifying bacterium
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (Denitrifying bacterium)

Explanation

Denitrifying bacteria change nitrates into nitrogen gas.

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Question 24

Nutrient Cycling

The process whereby microorganisms can convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogenous compound is known as

  1. A.nitrogen cycle
  2. B.nitrogen fixation
  3. C.denitrification
  4. D.putrefaction
  5. E.decomposition
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (nitrogen fixation)

Explanation

Turning nitrogen gas into nitrogen compounds is nitrogen fixation.

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Question 25

Reproduction in Plants

Use the diagram below to answer questions 25 and 27
What is the function of the part labelled II?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.Attraction of insects
  2. B.Secretion of nectar
  3. C.Protection of the stigma
  4. D.Formation of fruit wall
  5. E.Attachment of flower to the shoot
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Attraction of insects)

Explanation

II is a large coloured petal, which attracts insects for pollination.

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Question 26

Reproduction in Plants

Use the diagram of a flower (parts labelled I and II) to answer this question.
The function of the part labelled I is to

Diagram for this question
  1. A.receive pollen grains
  2. B.produce nectar
  3. C.store the pollen grains
  4. D.store the ovules
  5. E.produce the male gametes
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (receive pollen grains)

Explanation

I is the stigma at the tip of the style, which receives pollen grains.

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Question 27

Reproduction in Plants

Use the diagram of a flower (parts labelled I and II) to answer this question.
How would you describe the position of the ovary in relation to the receptacle?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.Superior
  2. B.Inferior
  3. C.Semi-inferior
  4. D.Gamosepalous
  5. E.Polysepalous
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Superior)

Explanation

In this flower (hibiscus type) the ovary sits on top of the receptacle above the other parts, so it is superior.

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Question 28

Ecological Associations

What type of relationship exists between a tapeworm and an infected mammal?

  1. A.Symbiosis
  2. B.Commensalism
  3. C.Predation
  4. D.Parasitism
  5. E.Saprophytism
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Parasitism)

Explanation

The tapeworm feeds on the host's digested food and harms it: parasitism.

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Question 29

Sense Organs

Use the diagram below to answer questions 29 to 31
The parts labelled IV, V and VI respectively are the

Diagram for this question
  1. A.ciliary body, optic nerve and yellow spot
  2. B.blind spot, optic nerve and suspensory ligament
  3. C.vitreous humour, yellow spot and optic nerve
  4. D.blind spot, optic nerve and pupil
  5. E.yellow spot, retina and choroid layer
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (vitreous humour, yellow spot and optic nerve)

Explanation

IV fills the main chamber (vitreous humour), V is on the retina opposite the lens (yellow spot), VI leaves the back of the eye (optic nerve).

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Question 30

Sense Organs

Use the diagram of the eye (parts labelled I to VII) to answer this question.
The light ray entering the eye goes through the following route

Diagram for this question
  1. A.II, III, I, IV, V
  2. B.II, I, VII, III, V
  3. C.II, I, III, IV, V
  4. D.V, IV, III, I, II
  5. E.I, VII, III, IV, V
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (II, I, III, IV, V)

Explanation

Light passes through the aqueous humour, the lens and the vitreous humour before reaching the yellow spot on the retina.

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Question 31

Sense Organs

Use the diagram of the eye (parts labelled I to VII) to answer this question.
Which of the following structures are adjusted in focusing the image of a distant or near object on the retina?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.I and II
  2. B.II and III
  3. C.III and VII
  4. D.IV and V
  5. E.V and VII
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (III and VII)

Explanation

Focusing (accommodation) is done by the ciliary body and suspensory ligaments changing the shape of the lens.

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Question 32

Habitats and Biomes

Which of the following best describes a marine habitat? A large body of water

  1. A.which has no distinctive colour or taste
  2. B.with high concentration of salt
  3. C.with little suspended materials
  4. D.with no water weeds
  5. E.which sustains no animal life
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (with high concentration of salt)

Explanation

Marine habitats are seas and oceans, which are salty.

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Question 33

Habitats and Biomes

The following are features of the tropical rain forest except

  1. A.abundant water supply
  2. B.loose and moist soil
  3. C.short trees growing beneath tall trees
  4. D.scanty trees with small leaves
  5. E.presence of many animals
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (scanty trees with small leaves)

Explanation

Rainforests have dense trees with broad leaves; scanty trees with small leaves describe dry savanna.

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Question 34

Habitats and Biomes

The following are features of Northern Guinea Savanna except

  1. A.presence of tall trees with thick bark
  2. B.bare soil with very few trees
  3. C.presence of fire-resistant trees
  4. D.abundant herbivores
  5. E.predominance of woody trees
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (bare soil with very few trees)

Explanation

Northern Guinea Savanna has tall grasses with scattered, fire-resistant trees with thick bark; bare soil with very few trees describes the Sahel.

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Question 35

Feeding Relationships and Energy Flow

Which of the following explains the term pyramid of numbers?

  1. A.The number of organisms in a trophic level
  2. B.The relationship between plants in different trophic levels
  3. C.The number of saprophytes and parasites in a habitat
  4. D.The number of predators in a habitat
  5. E.Progressive decrease in the number of individuals from lower to higher trophic level
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (The number of organisms in a trophic level)

Explanation

A pyramid of numbers shows how many organisms there are at each trophic level.

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Question 36

Nutrient Cycling

In which of the following processes is carbondioxide not given out?

  1. A.Respiration in plants
  2. B.Decay of organism
  3. C.Burning of organic matter
  4. D.Burning of fuels
  5. E.During photosynthesis
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (During photosynthesis)

Explanation

Photosynthesis takes in carbon dioxide.

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Question 37

Nutrient Cycling

Sea water taken in by a living organism can be recycled into the atmosphere through all the following processes except

  1. A.transpiration
  2. B.digestion
  3. C.excretion
  4. D.respiration
  5. E.decay
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (digestion)

Explanation

Digestion breaks down food inside the gut; it does not return water to the air.

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Question 38

Pollution

Which of the following water pollutants may contain organisms that cause dysentery?

  1. A.Pesticides
  2. B.Sewage
  3. C.Industrial wastes
  4. D.Fertilizers
  5. E.Crude oil
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (Sewage)

Explanation

Sewage contains human faeces, which can carry dysentery germs.

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Question 39

Adaptation

Which of the following is not an adaptation of plants or animals to desert environment?

  1. A.Well developed tap root system
  2. B.Small leaves with thick epidermis
  3. C.Stems with spike-like leaves
  4. D.Metabolic waste in the form of uric acid in some animals
  5. E.Broad leaves for storage
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (Broad leaves for storage)

Explanation

Broad leaves lose too much water; desert plants store water in fleshy stems or thick leaves instead.

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Question 40

Population Ecology

A climax community is characterised by

  1. A.a stable composition of plant and animal species
  2. B.rapid changes in the composition of species
  3. C.constant changes in appearance of the habitat
  4. D.different species occurring at different times
  5. E.gradual change in animal population
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (a stable composition of plant and animal species)

Explanation

At climax the community is stable and its species stay the same.

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Question 41

Population Ecology

Which of the following is not a characteristic of overcrowding in plant and animal community?

  1. A.Population outstripping available space
  2. B.Population exceeding available food
  3. C.Competition within the population
  4. D.increase in primary production
  5. E.Population increasing at the same rate as the birth rate
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (increase in primary production)

Explanation

Overcrowding reduces the food and space available; it does not increase primary production.

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Question 42

Ecological Associations

The use of predators or parasites to control pests in the farm is known as

  1. A.predator control
  2. B.chemical control
  3. C.biological control
  4. D.animal control
  5. E.parasitic control
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (biological control)

Explanation

Using living natural enemies against pests is biological control.

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Question 43

Microorganisms and Health

Which of the following substances cannot control the growth of harmful microoganisms?

  1. A.Antibiotics
  2. B.Hypertonic salt solution
  3. C.Disinfectants
  4. D.Isotonic sugar solution
  5. E.Antiseptics
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Isotonic sugar solution)

Explanation

An isotonic solution has the same concentration as the microbes' cells, so it does not draw water out of them.

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Question 44

Ecological Associations

Which of the following is the underlining principle in the adoption of biological control of pests?

  1. A.Knowledge of agricultural practices by the farmer
  2. B.Relationship between plants and animals
  3. C.The presence of poisonous chemicals in the farm
  4. D.The relative population of plants and animals in the farm
  5. E.The predator-prey relationship in the ecolcgical community
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (The predator-prey relationship in the ecolcgical community)

Explanation

Biological control works because predators and parasites feed on the pests.

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Question 45

Conservation of Natural Resources

The following agencies are responsible for conservation in Nigeria except

  1. A.Forestry Department
  2. B.Nigerian Conservation Society
  3. C.Games Reserve Authority
  4. D.Nigerian Red Cross Society
  5. E.Ministry of Agriculture and Natural Resources
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Nigerian Red Cross Society)

Explanation

The Red Cross gives first aid and relief; it is not a conservation body.

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Question 47

Mendelian Inheritance

The table below indicates the result of an experiment during which grains of different colours in two maize cobs were counted
Maize Cob I: White 30, Pink 60, Red 30
Maize Cob II: White 50, Pink 99, Red 49
Which of the following ratios agrees with the result?

  1. A.9:3:3
  2. B.1:2:1
  3. C.1:3:1
  4. D.2:1:1
  5. E.2:3:2
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (1:2:1)

Explanation

Cob I: 30 : 60 : 30 = 1 : 2 : 1; cob II: 50 : 99 : 49 ≈ 1 : 2 : 1 (incomplete dominance).

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Question 48

Transport in Animals

One of the factors that must be considered for safe blood transfusion is

  1. A.social class of the donor
  2. B.age of the recipient
  3. C.rhesus factors of the donor and the recipient
  4. D.nationality of the donor
  5. E.weight of the recipient
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (rhesus factors of the donor and the recipient)

Explanation

The rhesus factor (as well as the ABO group) must match to avoid a transfusion reaction.

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Question 49

Mendelian Inheritance

One of the major criticisms against Mendelian laws is that they do not recognise that

  1. A.one trait is often controlled by many pairs of genes
  2. B.single factor inheritance is never a reality
  3. C.complete dominance is always possible
  4. D.incomplete dominance is not possible
  5. E.hybrids exist in living organisms
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (one trait is often controlled by many pairs of genes)

Explanation

Mendel studied one gene per trait, but many traits (e.g. height in man) are controlled by many genes.

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Question 50

Mendelian Inheritance

Identical twins inherit their genes from

  1. A.the same ovum and different sperms
  2. B.the same sperm and different ova
  3. C.different sperms and many ova
  4. D.the same ovum and the same sperm
  5. E.many ova and many sperms
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (the same ovum and the same sperm)

Explanation

Identical twins come from one zygote (one ovum fertilised by one sperm) that splits in two.

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Question 51

Mendelian Inheritance

The offspring produced when pure strains interbreed is described as

  1. A.dominance
  2. B.phenotype
  3. C.allele
  4. D.genotype
  5. E.hybrid
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: E (hybrid)

Explanation

Crossing two different pure-breeding strains gives a hybrid.

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Question 52

Mendelian Inheritance

Which of the following diseases or disorders can be prevented by the application of the knowledge of heredity through marriage counselling?

  1. A.Sickle cell anaemia
  2. B.Haemophilia
  3. C.Diabetes mellitus
  4. D.Colour blindness
  5. E.River blindness
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Sickle cell anaemia)

Explanation

Two AS carriers can be advised of the 1 in 4 chance of an SS child; genotype testing before marriage helps prevent sickle cell anaemia.

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Question 53

Mendelian Inheritance

Study the genetic cross below showing the inheritance of blood groups.
From the cross above which of the following F offspring does not belong to the father?

Diagram for this question
  1. A.AA
  2. B.AO
  3. C.OB
  4. D.OO
  5. E.AB
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (OO)

Explanation

Father (A, B) × mother (A, O) gives AA, AO, AB and BO; every child gets A or B from the father, so OO is impossible.

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Question 54

Chromosomes, DNA and Sex Linkage

Which of the following is a function of the chromosome?

  1. A.Transmission of hereditary traits
  2. B.Protein synthesis
  3. C.Excretion
  4. D.Energy production
  5. E.Manufacture of enzyme
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A (Transmission of hereditary traits)

Explanation

Chromosomes carry the genes that pass characters from parents to offspring.

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Question 55

Adaptation

Which of the following does not illustrate adaptation to the environment?

  1. A.Colour changes by chameleon
  2. B.Streamline shape of fishes
  3. C.Light bones in birds
  4. D.Development of big muscles by a weight lifter
  5. E.Possession of fins by fishes
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (Development of big muscles by a weight lifter)

Explanation

Muscles built by training are acquired during one lifetime and are not inherited adaptations.

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Question 56

Adaptation

The changing of colour by a chameleon to that of the environment is an example of

  1. A.adaptive radiation
  2. B.protective coloration
  3. C.courtship display
  4. D.display of body colour
  5. E.territorial behaviour
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B (protective coloration)

Explanation

Matching its background hides the chameleon: protective coloration (camouflage).

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Question 57

Behaviour

The division of labour in social insects is an example of

  1. A.structural adaptation
  2. B.physiological adaptation
  3. C.commensalism
  4. D.behavioural adaptation
  5. E.hormonal influence
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (behavioural adaptation)

Explanation

Members of the colony behave differently, each caste doing its own job: a behavioural adaptation.

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Question 58

Behaviour

The swarming especially at the beginning of the rainy season is a courtship behaviour shown by

  1. A.migratory birds
  2. B.pigeons
  3. C.crickets
  4. D.winged termites
  5. E.bees
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (winged termites)

Explanation

Winged termites swarm out at the start of the rains to mate and start new colonies.

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Question 59

Evolution

Lamarck's evolution theory could be summarised by the statement that

  1. A.only the fittest can survive in a challenging environment
  2. B.species that are unable to adapt become extinct
  3. C.new characteristics do not arise in organisms in time of need
  4. D.the changing environment imposes structural physiological and behavioural changes in organisms
  5. E.in a changing and unstable environment nature rejects the weak
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D (the changing environment imposes structural physiological and behavioural changes in organisms)

Explanation

Lamarck taught that the environment causes organisms to change (by use and disuse) and that these changes are passed on.

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Question 60

Soil

The property of clay soil that prevents it from supporting thick vegetation is its

  1. A.possession of chemically weathered granite rocks
  2. B.inability to retain much water
  3. C.tendency of becoming waterlogged
  4. D.porosity and low water retention ability
  5. E.high capillary spaces between the soil particles
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C (tendency of becoming waterlogged)

Explanation

Clay holds so much water that it becomes waterlogged and poorly aerated, so roots cannot respire well.

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Theory question 101

Microorganisms and Health

(a) (i) List two diseases each of plants and animals caused by bacteria (ii) State three ways in which bacteria are useful.
(b) State three methods by which mosquitoes can be controlled and state the reason for each method.
(c) Describe an experiment to demonstrate the presence of bacteria under the finger nails

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Model answer

(a)(i) Plants (two): soft rot of vegetables (e.g. carrot, yam), bacterial blight of cassava, bacterial wilt of tomato, crown gall, black arm of cotton
Animals (two): tuberculosis, cholera, typhoid, tetanus, gonorrhoea, anthrax, pneumonia
(ii) Any three: nitrogen fixation and nitrification (soil fertility); decay of dead matter/recycling nutrients; sewage treatment; making foods (yoghurt, cheese, vinegar); making antibiotics/vaccines; digestion of cellulose in ruminants; tanning and retting
(b) Any three with reasons: drain stagnant water/clear bushes and cans – removes breeding sites; spray oil/kerosene on water – suffocates larvae; introduce larva-eating fish (Tilapia/Gambusia) – biological control; spray insecticides – kills adults; use nets/screens – prevents bites
(c) Prepare sterile nutrient agar in petri dishes; scrape dirt from under the finger nails with a sterile pin/loop and streak it on one plate; leave a second plate unopened as control; seal and incubate (warm place, about 37 °C) for 2–3 days
Result: colonies of bacteria appear on the inoculated plate but not on the control; so bacteria are present under finger nails

Explanation

Always describe a control plate in a microbiology experiment.

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Theory question 102

Respiration

(a) Describe the process of inhalation in man
(b) Describe briefly the process of gaseous exchange in the shoot system of flowering plants
(c) Describe an experiment to demonstrate the effect of distilled water on mammalian red blood cell.

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(a) External intercostal muscles contract, ribs move upwards and outwards; diaphragm muscles contract and the diaphragm flattens (moves down); volume of thoracic cavity increases, pressure inside falls below atmospheric pressure; air rushes in through nose, trachea and bronchi into the lungs
(b) Gases diffuse through stomata in leaves (and lenticels in woody stems) into intercellular air spaces; they dissolve in the moist cell walls and diffuse into/out of cells; in daylight CO₂ enters and O₂ leaves (photosynthesis greater than respiration); at night O₂ enters and CO₂ leaves
(c) Put a drop of blood in distilled water and a drop in 0.9% salt (isotonic) solution as control; observe under a microscope after a few minutes
In distilled water the red cells swell and burst (haemolysis) because water enters by osmosis – the liquid turns clear red; in salt solution the cells stay normal

Explanation

In (c) explain the result in terms of osmosis.

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Theory question 103

Population Ecology

(a) Give a brief description of the characteristics of the Northern Guinean Savanna
(b) Describe how you can estimate the density of a plant species using a quadrat.

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(a) Rainfall about 1000–1500 mm with a long dry season (5–6 months); tall grasses (e.g. elephant grass, spear grass) in tufts; scattered trees of medium height with thick, fire-resistant bark and twisted trunks (e.g. shea butter, locust bean); many trees shed leaves in the dry season; frequent bush fires; deep roots and underground stems; many grazing animals
(b) Choose and mark out the study area; throw a quadrat (e.g. 1 m²) at random several times (e.g. 10); count the number of the chosen species in each throw; find the mean number per quadrat; density = mean number per quadrat ÷ quadrat area (number per m²); multiply by the total area to estimate the total number

Explanation

Throw the quadrat at random several times and use the average.

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Theory question 104

Mendelian Inheritance

(a) List four characters which can be transmitted from parent to offspring in man
(b) State two differences between mitosis and meiosis
(c) Explain briefly the importance of meiosis and fertilization in the reproduction of organisms
(d) In a monohybrid cross between a pure breeding plant that produces blue flowers and a pure breeding plant that produces white flower, the F1 generation produced only blue flowers. By means of labelled cross diagrams, state the type of flowers you would expect if the F1 generation is (i) self-pollinated (ii) cross-pollinated with a pure breeding plant that produces white flowers. Give reasons for your answers in (d) (i) and (ii)

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(a) Any four: skin colour, height, eye colour, blood group, tongue rolling, sickle cell trait, albinism, hair colour/texture, colour blindness
(b) Any two: mitosis gives two daughter cells, meiosis four; mitosis keeps the diploid number, meiosis halves it (haploid); mitosis in body cells, meiosis in reproductive organs; no crossing over in mitosis, crossing over in meiosis; daughter cells of mitosis identical, of meiosis different
(c) Meiosis halves the chromosome number in gametes so that fertilisation restores the diploid number, keeping it constant from generation to generation; both bring about new combinations of genes, causing variation
(d) Let B = blue (dominant), b = white; parents BB × bb, F₁ all Bb (blue)
(i) Bb × Bb → BB, Bb, Bb, bb: 3 blue : 1 white – each parent gives B or b and the dominant blue shows whenever B is present
(ii) Bb × bb → Bb, Bb, bb, bb: 1 blue : 1 white – the white parent gives only b, so half the offspring are bb (white)

Explanation

Show parents, gametes and offspring in each cross diagram, with a key to the symbols.

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